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RBI Officers Grade B Officers Exam Syllabus and Pattern RBI Grade B Officers Recruitment Selection Scheme 2010

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Reserve Bank of India Grade B Officers Recruitment Scheme of Selection :
Selection will be through Written Examinations (WE) and Interview. ‘WE’ will be held in two phases as under:
(I) Phase I (Objective Type Test) : This Paper of 3 hours duration for 200 marks will be held on Sunday, the February 6, 2011. The Paper consists tests of i) General Awareness ii) English Language iii) Quantitative Aptitude and iv) Reasoning. Candidates have to secure minimum marks separately for each test as prescribed by the Board. Candidates who secure minimum marks separately for each Test as prescribed will be shortlisted for Phase II of the ‘WE’ based on the aggregate marks obtained in the Objective Test. The minimum aggregate cut off marks for being shortlisted for Phase II of the WE will be decided by the Board in relation to the number of vacancies. Roll No. of the candidates successful in Phase I of the WE are likely to be published around March/April 2011 in Employment News/ Rozgar Samachar and on the RBI website and a brief notice thereof in leading newspapers.
(II) Phase II (Descriptive Type Test): The Phase II Examination will be conducted in May/ June 2011(tentative) only for those candidates who are successful in Phase I (Objective Type Test). The date and time-table will be intimated to the candidates concerned at the appropriate time. TheExamination will consist of three Descriptive Type papers –
(i) Paper I – English (ii) Paper II – Economic and Social Issues and (iii) Paper III – Finance and Management. Each of these papers is of 3 hours duration carrying 100 marks.

NOTE : Phase I (except the test of English) and Papers II and III of Phase II will be set bilingually in Hindi and English. Phase I is Objective Type and only marking the correct choice is required. However, Papers II and III of Phase II can be answered either wholly in Hindi or English at the candidate’s option.

(III) Syllabus (Phase II) :

(i) Paper I – English : Essay, Précis writing, Comprehension, Business/Office Correspondence.
(ii) Paper II – Economic and Social Issues: Growth and Development – Measurement of growth : National Income and per capita income – Poverty Alleviation and Employment Generation in India – Sustainable Development and Environmental issues. Economic Reforms in India – Industrial and Labour Policy – Monetary and Fiscal Policy – Privatisation – Role of Economic Planning. Globalization – Opening up of the Indian Economy – Balance of Payments, Export-Import Policy – International Economic Institutions – IMF and World Bank – WTO – Regional Economic Co-operation. Social Structure in India – Multiculturalism – Demographic Trends – Urbanisation and Migration – Gender Issues – Social Justice : Positive Discrimination in favour of the under privileged – Social Movements – Indian Political System – Human Development – Social Sectors in India, Health and Education.

(iii) Paper III – Finance and Management :
Finance : The Union Budget – Direct and Indirect taxes; Non-tax sources of revenue; Outlays; New Measures; Financial Sector Reforms; Capital Market, Money Market and Foreign Exchange Market; Stock Exchanges and their Regulation; Capital Market Intermediaries and their Regulation; Role of SEBI; Functions of the Money Market; Growth and Operation of the Money Market; The Foreign Exchange Market; From FERA to FEMA; Exchange Rate Management; Exchange Risk Management; Role of Banks and Financial Institutions in Economic Development; Regulation of Banks and Financial Institutions;
Disinvestment in Public Sector Units.CLICK HERE FOR LATEST RERSULTS

Management : Management: its nature and scope; The Management Processes; Planning Organisation, Staffing, Directing and Controlling; The Role of a Manager in an Organisation. Leadership: The Tasks of a Leader; Leadership Styles; Leadership Theories; A successful Leader versus an effective Leader. Human Resource Development: Concept of HRD; Goals of HRD; Performance Appraisal – Potential appraisal and development – Feedback and Performance Counseling – Career Planning – Training and Development – Rewards – Employee Welfare. Motivation, Morale and Incentives: Theories of Motivation; How Managers Motivate; Concept of Morale; Factors determining morale; Role of Incentives in Building up Morale. Communication: Steps in the Communication Process; Communication Channels; Oral versus Written Communication; Verbal versus non-verbal Communication; upward, downward and lateral communication; Barriers to Communication, Role of Information Technology. Corporate Governance: Factors affecting Corporate Governance; Mechanisms of Corporate Governance.
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NOTE : The above syllabus is only indicative and not exhaustive. Keeping in view that candidates from different faculty backgrounds apply for the post, the questions in Papers II and III will be basic in nature. Candidates will be short-listed for interview based on the aggregate marks obtained only in Phase II – Papers I, II and III. The minimum cut off marks for being short-listed for interview will be decided by the Board in relation to the number ofvacancies . Candidates may answer the Interview either in Hindi or English at their option. Final selection will be based on the performance of the candidate in Phase II of the ‘WE’ and Interview.
(d) Number of attempts : Candidates belonging to Unreserved Category, who had already appeared four times for ‘WE’ for this post in the past, are not eligible to apply. No such restriction to candidates belonging to SC\ST\OBC\PWD, if the posts are reserved for them.
(e) Pre-examination training for SC/ST/PWD candidates: The Bank arranges pre-examination training for Phases I and II of the examination for SC/ST/PWD candidates, free of cost, at the centres where the Bank has its offices. Candidates who desire to avail of the training may apply separately to the Regional Director/General Manager, Reserve Bank of India at any one of the centres marked (**) below, whichever is convenient to them in the format furnished below on or before November 15, 2010. Candidates should not send their application for training to the Reserve Bank of India Services Board’s Office (Board) as the Board will not entertain such applications.CLICK HERE FOR LATEST RERSULTS

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Staff Selection Commission SI in CPOs Selection Procedure SSC Sub Inspector in CPOs Exam Pattern

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SCHEME OF EXAMINATION : Written Examination. Paper-I

Questions in both papers will be of Objective Multiple Choice Type. Questions will be set in Hindi and English in Parts A, B and C of Paper I. Deduction of 0.25 mark will be made for each incorrect answer marked on OMR Answer Sheet.
NOTE-I: Candidates are not permitted to use Mobile Phone, Calculators or any other electronic/electrical device for answering any paper (Test Booklets). Candidates must not, therefore, bring Mobile Phone, Calculators or any other electronic /electrical device inside the Examination premises. Possession of these items, whether in use or not, will be considered as “use of unfair means” in the Examination and appropriate action will be taken by the Commission against such candidates, as per extant policy of the Commission.
NOTE-II: The Commission will not take cognizance of representations, regarding the content of the Examination received later than fifteen days of the Examination.

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SBI Clerical Final Selected Candidates List www.sbi.co.in SBI Clerk Interview April/May 2010 Result pdf download

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SBI Clerk Interview Result 2010 | SBI Clerk Interview April/May 2010 Result | SBI Clerk Final Result 2010 | SBI Clerical Final Selected Candidates List | www.sbi.co.in
Recruitment of Clerical Staff in SBI (Advertisement No CRPD/CR/2009-10/04) WRITTEN TEST HELD ON 08TH , 15TH & 22ND NOVEMBER 2009
State Bank of india Published Clerk Recruitment interview result held in april/may 2010
Click Here To SBI Clerk Interview Result April/May 2010

SBI General Manager Press Notification Released The interviews for the captioned recruitment exercise were held in the month of April & May 2010. Around 90,000 candidates were interviewed and the tabulation of the interview marks and merging them with marks of written test is nearly complete. As therecruitment exercise is massive, checking and crosschecking of the marks has been necessitated so that it is error free. The exercise of final selection is state-wise and category-wise based on the reservations prescribed for SC, ST, OBC, etc. As such, it is equal to compilation of more than 200 independent merit lists. We expect to complete the whole exercise and release the final result in six weeks time. This is for the information of the candidates. Candidates are requested to bear this delay with us.
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Federal Bank Clerks Selection Procedure Federal Bank Clerks and Probationary Officers Exam Pattern and Syllabus 2010

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Selection Procedure:
The selection process consists of written test, interview, etc. The details of the written test are as follows:

All the tests will be Objective type with five alternative choices out of which one will be the correct answer. The tests will be in English only.

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Green Olympiad Sample Test Paper Green Olympiad Sample Papers

Green Olympiad Sample Test Paper CLICK HERE FOR LATEST RERSULTS
1. At the conclusion of the Earth Summit of 1992, the following were accomplished:
a. Agenda 21 was signed
b. An international agreement to reduce CO2 outputs was signed
c. The Earth Charter was developed
d. All of the above

2. In 1992, at the Earth Summit in Rio de Janeiro, which two countries announced that they would resume whale hunting?
a. India and Bangladesh
b. Iceland and Nor
c. USA and Canada
d. Egypt and Israel
3. The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change was opened for signature at the Rio Earth Summit. Name the
landmark protocol that was adopted 5 years later, which required industrialized nations to collectively reduce their greenhouse gas emissions 5% below their 1990 levels.
a. Kyoto Protocol
b. Vienna Convention
c. Basel Convention
d. Agenda 21

4. In recent years, the environment has become a major issue all over the world and various steps have been taken for its protection. The United Nations held its first international conference on Human Environment on 5 June 1972 in this city. Since then, the World Environment Day is also celebrated on this day. Name the city.
a. Berlin
b. Stockholm
c. Washington
d. Vienna
5. Its primary objective is the conservation and management of diversity among plants, animals, birds, etc. It also provides opportunities for the protection of indigenous knowledge practices and innovations related to the natural environment. This is known as the
a. Convention on Biological Diversity
b. Montreal Protocol
c. Framework Convention on Climate Change
d. Kyoto Protocol
6. What is Agenda 21?
a. A list of 21 actions that people can take to save the planet
b. A challenge to the government and local communities to prepare for the 21st century
c. The 21st of 27 agendas produced at the Rio Earth Summit in 1992
d. None of the above
7. Agenda 21, a United Nations document, does not use which of the following as one of its important themes:
a. The clean world—managing chemicals and waste
b. The shared world—managing global and regional resources
c. The equalized world—using force to take resources from rich countries
d. The just world—promoting sustainable living everywhere
8. According to the Agenda, this group has the foremost responsibility for bringing about changes in the environment.
a. Communities
b. National governments
c. Local governments
d. Individuals
9. The problems of pollution are growing. Maximum pollution can be seen and felt in the
a. Countryside
b. Mountains
c. Grasslands
d. Cities
10. Which group of countries has made the largest contribution to environmental degradation and pollution in the last century?
a. Developing countries
b. Developed countries
c. Third World countries
d. a and c
11. Nature endows all creatures with certain abilities to help them adapt to their surroundings. Sea mammals possess an insulating layer of fat that protects them from the cold. Name this layer.
a. Thermofat
b. Blubber
c. Thermocol
d. Sea foam
12. This 140-MW ISCC (Integrated Solar Combined Cycle) power plant with a solar thermal power generation technology will be India’s first and among the world’s largest. The solar thermal component is based on the parabolic trough collector technology. The combined cycle power plant of 105 MW capacity with supplementary firing during non-sunny hours will be run on naphtha / natural gas. In which state is it being set up?
a. Gujarat
b. Rajasthan
c. Bengal
d. Madhya Pradesh
13. Some organisms in the ocean use this greenhouse gas for photosynthesis and shell-
formation, thereby preventing it from contributing to global warming. Name the gas.
a. Nitrous oxide
b. Sulphur dioxide
c. Carbon dioxide
d. Oxygen
14. Volcanoes emit large volumes of pollutants into the air. The largest volcano on Earth rises to a height of 56 000 feet from its base in the sea. Among Earth’s most active volcanoes, its the most recent eruption was in 1984. Name this volcano.
a. Krakatoa
b. Vesuvius
c. Azores
d. Mauna Loa

15. In the animal kingdom, a variety of relationships exist among creatures. What type of relationship is seen between the lion and the zebra?
a. Host/parasite
b. Mutualism
c. Predator/prey
d. Parasitism
16. Indian coal generally has a high ash content and low calorific value. Therefore, most coking coal must be imported. Major Indian coalfields are found in Bihar, West Bengal, and Madhya Pradesh. Along with China and the United States, India ranks as the ______ largest coal producer in the world.
a. First
b. Second
c. Third
d. Fourth
17. This method of farming reduces soil erosion in hilly regions. It also creates hundreds of small dams, slows down water flow, and increases infiltration, which reduces erosion and promotes better water quality. What is this beneficial method known as?
a. Contour farming
b. Multiple cropping
c. Crop rotation
d. Jhum cultivation
18. The People’s Republic of China is the world’s most populous country and the second largest energy consumer (after the United States). It is also the world’s largest producer and consumer of one of the following fuels. Name the fuel.
a. Petroleum
b. Natural gas
c. Biomass
d. Coal
19. India was the first country to insert an amendment into its Constitution, allowing the State to protect and improve the environment for safeguarding public health, forests, and wildlife. In which year, was this 42nd amendment adopted?
a. 1975
b. 1976
c. 1977
d. 1978
20. Water engineers often say, ‘The solution to pollution is dilution’. This is true to some extent in the case of River Yamuna. By the time it flows through Delhi, it is considered highly polluted but on the way to Allahabad, it is joined by another tributary and gets diluted, thereby bringing down the pollution level. Name this tributary.
a. Chambal
b. Beas
c. Sutlej
d. Kopili
21. When wood is burnt, it releases many pollutants. The visible ‘smoke’ that is emitted from burning wood is called ______.
a. Lead
b. Ash
c. Sulphur dioxide
d. Particulate matter
22. Under this method, crops are changed year by year in a planned sequence. It is common practice on sloping soils because of its potential for soil saving. It also reduces fertilizer needs, because alfalfa and other legumes replace some of the nitrogen used up by grain crops. What is this method known as?
a. Crop revolution
b. Crop rotation
c. Terracing
d. Multiple cropping
23. In March 1989, the oil tanker Exxon Valdez was wrecked, spilling millions of gallons of oil into the ocean. This spill affected tens of thousands of seabirds, fish, sea otters, and other creatures that lived
on the shores. Where did this tragedy occur?
a. California
b. Alaska
c. Long Island
d. Maryland
24. Wetlands play an important role in filtering and trapping sediment from run-off before it enters a stream or lake. Wetlands not only purify water in this manner but also provide a home to many creatures and migratory birds. Which international agreement was signed to protect these wetlands?
a. Vienna Convention
b. Ramsar Convention
c. Rio Declaration
d. Montreal Protocol

25. The United Nations Conference on the Human Environment was held in Stockholm, Sweden, from 5–16 June 1972. For the first time, the political, social, and economic problems of the global environment were discussed at an intergovernmental forum with a view to actually take corrective action. Name the only developing country, whose head of government attended this conference.
a. Japan
b. Indonesia
c. India
d. China
26. This study of a part of a tree is known as dendrochronology and is extensively used these days. Through this study, scientists can discover many things about the local climate of the place during the lifetime of the tree. Name the part of the tree that is studied.
a. Mid-rib of the leaf
b. Rings on the trunk
c. Stamen in the flower
d. Roots
27. There are three countries that form the Golden Triangle, notorious for exporting large quantities of opium to the western world—Myanmar, Laos, and ______.
a. Cambodia
b. Indonesia
c. Malaysia
d. Thailand
28. This is that time of the year when neither the North Pole nor the South Pole is inclined towards the sun and the sun’s rays fall perpendicularly on the earth. This phenomenon occurs twice in the year. What is this period known as?
a. Solstice
b. Equinox
c. Doldrums
d. Tropic
29. The Mauna Loa record is the longest continuous record of atmospheric carbon dioxide anywhere in the world. This site is considered one of the most accurate for measuring undisturbed air as local influence of vegetation or human activity is minimal. Where is this station located?
a. Hawaii
b. Caribbean Islands
c. New Zealand
d. Mauritius
30. For this group of aborigines, inhabiting an island of about 60 square km in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, contact with the civilized world has been negligible. They are probably the world’s only surviving Paleolithic people and very little is known about them. Name this tribe.
a. Jarawas
b. Onge
c. Sentinelese
d. Shompens
31. All radio waves are reflected from this layer in the atmosphere. In the last couple of decades, the height of this layer has dropped by 8 km. An analysis of records of 38 years showed that the echo of a reflected radio wave takes less time to return now than it did in 1958. Some scientists have attributed this to global warming. Name this layer.
a. Stratosphere
b. Troposphere
c. Mesosphere
d. Ionosphere
32. This insect has been of great use to humankind since thousands of years. The first mention of the insect and its extract was made in cave paintings some 8000 years ago. Name this insect, the first to be domesticated by man.
a. Butterfly
b. Fly
c. Bee
d. Grasshopper
33. In India, the Environment (Protection) Act authorizes the central government to protect and improve environmental quality, control and reduce pollution from all sources, and prohibit or restrict the setting and operation of any industrial facility. In which year was this Act introduced?
a. 1985
b. 1986
c. 1987
d. 1989

34. Fibres of different animals are used for making this. Recently, the Indian government seized about 1000 kg of common mongoose hair, which came from the killing of approximately 50 000 mongooses, and would have ended up as this. What product are we talking about?
a. Wig
b. Paper
c. Paint brush
d. Cloth
35. Otoliths (catfish bones) have been used by scientists to study the phenomenon of El Niño. The ratio of oxygen isotopes in each individual growth band helps to determine the temperature of the water during the lifetime of the fish. Using these bones, scientists have reconstructed the water temperature history for the last 5000 years. The El Niño phenomenon originates off the coast of ______.
a. Argentina
b. Brazil
c. Chile
d. Peru
36. Pure water is normally a liquid made of molecules containing one atom of oxygen and two atoms of hydrogen. It has no colour, taste, or smell. It turns to a solid at 0 °C. At what temperature does it turn into vapour?
a. 80 °C
b. 90 °C
c. 100 °C
d. 110 °C
37. A lagoon is a shallow lake separated from the sea by sand banks, coral reefs, etc. This lagoon, in the Indian subcontinent, is not only the largest brackish water lagoon in the country but also the largest wintering ground for migratory waterfowl in the region. Name it.
a. Pulicat
b. Rekawa
c. Kuttanad
d. Chilika
38. As much as 38% of the earth’s fresh water exists as ice in the form of glaciers and ice caps. Of the total world’s freshwater supply, over two-thirds is found underground. Saltwater oceans and seas contain approximately 95.1% of the world’s water supply. What percentage is found in freshwater lakes, rivers, and underground aquifers?
a. 3.5%
b. 5.5%
c. 4%
d. 4.5%
39. When a forest has more species than a wheat field, it is said to have a higher level of which of the following?
a Biodiversity
b Extinction rate
c Ozone layer
d Ecosystem
40. Lead in the atmosphere is a major pollutant, causing a large number of health problems. Which of the following would release the most lead into the air?
a Lead pipes
b Lead-based paint
c Automobile exhaust
d Batteries

41. The growing of plants without soil has developed from the findings of experiments carried out to determine which substances make these plants grow, and their composition. A primitive form of such cultivation has been carried out in Kashmir for centuries. What is such growth of crop plants in a liquid medium called?
a Hydrostatic
b Hydroscopic
c Hydrophobic
d Hydroponics
42. Which animal group has the maximum number of endangered and threatened species?
a Insects
b MammalsCLICK HERE FOR LATEST RERSULTS
c Birds
d All are equal
43. The development of trade routes from the Orient contributed to the rapid spread of this disease. It erupted from the Gobi Desert in Mongolia, and spread along the route to Europe. In the short span between 1347 and 1350, one-third of the population of western Europe succumbed to this disease. Which killer disease was this?
a Bubonic Plague
b Malaria
c Hepatitis
d Cholera
44. Carbon is present in various forms in all the earth’s spheres. Most carbon resides in one of the following spheres. Which one?
a Atmosphere
b Hydrosphere
c Lithosphere
d Biosphere
45. This layer of the atmosphere contains 75% of the atmosphere’s total mass, and is the most significant (meteorologically), as almost all of the earth’s ‘weather’ occurs in it. Which layer?
a Troposphere
b Stratosphere
c Mesosphere
d Ionosphere
46. Non-renewable sources of energy can either not be replaced or are replaced very slowly by natural processes. Overuse of these resources is currently leading to their depletion. Which of the following is not a non-renewable energy resource?
a Natural gas
b Coal
c Oil
d Wind
47. The Grand Canal is 20 times longer than the Panama Canal, and was built 1300 years ago. It connects the Yangtze River with which other Chinese river?
a Pearl River
b Songhua River
c Hai He River
d Hwang Ho River
48. The term GM, which stands for ‘genetically modified’, is most commonly used to refer to crop plants created by humans using advanced molecular biology techniques. These plants have been modified in the laboratory to enhance desired traits, such as increased resistance to pests or improved nutritional content. What effect does eating GM foods have on your genes?
a It could cause your own genes to mutate.
b It could cause your own genes to absorb the excess genes.
c It has no effect on your genes.
d The effects on human genes are not known.
49. Identify the incorrect match in the following mountain–continent pairs.
a Aconcagua: North America
b Everest: Asia
c Elbrus: Europe
d Vinson Massif: Antarctica
50. Following a nuclear holocaust, what season do scientists believe will engulf the earth and have even coined a term for it?
a Nuclear autumn
b Nuclear spring
c Nuclear winter
d Nuclear summer
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Bank of Maharashtra Probationary Officers Written Exam Pattern Bank of Maharashtra Probationary Officers Written Selection Procedure Test Syllabus

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BANK OF MAHARASHTRA Recruitment of Probationary Officers 2010SELECTION PROCEDURE:
Selection will be on the basis of Written Test and/or Group Discussions, Interview depending on the number of applications received for the post. Merely satisfying the eligibility norm does not entitle a candidate to be called for Written Test / GD / Personality Test / Interview. The Bank reserves the right to call only the requisite number of candidates for the GD / Interview after preliminary screening / short-listing with reference to candidates qualifications, suitability, experience, etc.

WRITTEN TEST
Written Test will comprise (i) Objective Test on Quantitative Aptitude, Reasoning, General Awareness and English & (ii) Descriptive Test. The Descriptive Test shall be to assess the candidates’ knowledge on Socio- economic development and Communication Skills. Descriptive test paper of only those candidates will be evaluated who are adequately high in percentile ranking in each of all the four objective tests. The merit list of written examination will be based on the aggregate of the marks obtained by the candidates in Objective and Descriptive tests. However, the number of candidates to be called for Group Discussion and/or Interview will be as per the appropriate cut off mark decided by the Bank. Merely eligibility/pass in the Written Test will not entitle any candidate to be called for GD and/ or Interview. Further details regarding the Written Test i.e. number of questions, duration, etc., shall be advised along with the call letter. The candidates have an option to answer the Written Test (Descriptive Test) in either English or Hindi (only in one language).
There will be negative marks for the wrong answers in the Objective Tests.
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FINAL SELECTION
Those candidates who qualify in both Written Test & Group Discussion/Interview as mentioned above, will be considered for Final Selection. Merit List of such candidates will be prepared based on the aggregate marks (Written Test and GD/Interview) obtained by them and depending on the vacancies, selection will be made from the top merit ranked candidates in each category. Results of the candidates who have qualified in the Written Test and thereafter the list of candidates finally selected will be available on the Bank’s website and the decision of the Bank in this regard is final.
DETAILS OF WRITTEN TEST:
The written test will be held on 19-12-2010 at the following centers and the address of the venue will be advised in the call letters. Detailed List of written test centers with the center codes is given below:
GROUP DISCUSSIONS AND/OR INTERVIEW
The candidates who pass the test and rank sufficiently high shall be called for interview in the ratio of 1:3 in relation to the number of posts i.e. 3 candidates to be called for interview for every post depending on ranking in the written test

PRE-EXAMINATION TRAINING:
The Bank intends to impart free non-residential Pre-Examination Training [PET] to a limited number of candidates belonging to Schedule Caste/Schedule Tribe /Minorities Communities at all examination centres , in consonance with the guidelines issued by the Government of India. Candidates belonging to the above categories who desire to avail themselves of such Pre-Examination Training may indicate to that effect and should fill in the relevant column in the On-line application. Selection for the PET from among the candidates will be made on the priority of the date of receipt of application. All expenses for attending the Pre-Examination Training programme at the concerned Training Centre relating to travel, boarding, lodging, etc. will have to be made and borne by the candidate. The Bank has discretion to add or delete from the centers for PET indicated above. CLICK HERE FOR LATEST RERSULTS

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Karur Vysya Bank Clerk Written Test Model Paper | KVB Clerical Post Written Exam Questions

SAMPLE QUESTIONS CLICK HERE FOR MORE RESULTS JOB
Below are given some sample questions for the objective type tests. The types of questions are only illustrative and not exhaustive. In the actual examination you may find questions on some or all of these types and also questions on the types not mentioned here.
Test I : Reasoning
Q.1. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one which is not like the other four ?
(1) Man (2) Girl (3) Boy (4) Person (5) Lady
Q.2. ‘Table’ is related to ‘Wood’ in the same way as ‘Shoe’ is related to ________
(1) Cobbler (2) Chappal (3) Lace (4) Shop (5) Leather
Q.3. If the letters in the word TOPS can be rearranged to form a meaningful word beginning with O, write the last letter of that word, if more than one such word can be formed write M and if no such word can be formed write X.
(1) T (2) P (3) S (4) M (5) X
Q.4. If (I) ‘A * B’ means ‘A is the mother of B’ and (II) ‘A × B’ means ‘A is the husband of B’, which of thefollowing shows ‘P is the father of Q’ ?
(1) Q * M × P (2) P * Q (3) Q * P
(4) P × M * Q (5) None of these
Q.5. In a certain code SENT is written ‘ + ÷ × –’ and ANT is written ‘* × –’. How is TEN wiritten in that code ?
(1) × ÷ + (2) * – + (3) ÷ × – (4) – ÷ × (5) × ÷ –
Q.6. In a row of boys Amar is tenth from one end. There are 20 boys in the row. What is his position from the other end ?
(1) 9th (2) 10th (3) 11th (4) 20th (5) None of these
TEST II : Test of English Language
This is a test to see how well you know English. Your English language ability would be tested through questions on grammar, vocabulary, sentence completion, synonyms, antonyms, comprehension of a passage, etc. Study and answer the sample questions given below. Please remember, in the test paper there may be questions of several other types also.
Q.7-8. Directions : Pick up the most appropriate word from amongst the words given under each sentence to complete it meaningfully.
Q.7. He quickly glanced the book to find what it said about the Indian economy.
(1) at (2) through (3) in (4) to (5) over
The correct answer is “through” which is answer No. 2. Now attempt the following questions.
Q.8. The local official the Minister of the situation.
(1) explained (2) warned (3) apprised (4) told (5) intimated
Q.9-11. Directions : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part of the sentence is your answer. If there is no error, the answer is ‘5’.
Q.9. I am twenty / two years old / when I first / joined the bank. No error
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
The error is in (1). Therefore the answer is ‘1’.
Q.10. To the Hindus / the Ganga is / holier than / any other river. No error
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)In
Q. 10, there is no error; therefore the right answer to this question is ‘5’. Now attempt the following question.
Q.11. Of all the teachers / in our school / our class teacher / were very strict. No error
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
Q.12-13. Directions : In each of the following questions, select from amongst the five alternatives, the word nearest
in meaning to the word given in capitals.
Q.12. CENTENARY
(1) a guard (2) a hundred years (3) a very old man (4) a hundred runs (5) the hundredth anniversary
Q.13. TRIUMPH
(1) conquer (2) smash (3) earn (4) brave (5) capture
Q.14-15. Directions : In each of the following questions, select from amongst the five numbered words, the word most opposite in meaning to the word given in capitals.
Q.14. LIVELY
(1) simple (2) weak (3) dull (4) angry (5) morose
Q.15. INEPT
(1) accurate (2) skillful (3) sensible (4) artistic (5) apt In addition to the above questions, there will be a passage in English for comprehension. You will be asked questions based on the passage.
Test III : Test of Numerical Ability
The questions help to know how fast and accurately you can work with numeric calculations. Q.16-20. In each question one number is missing. The place where the number is missing is shown by a question mark (?). Four answers are provided against each question. They are shown by numbers (1), (2), (3) and (4). You have to find out which one of the answers can replace the question mark. If none of these four can replace the question mark, the answer is (5).
Q.16. 42 + 73 + 137 = ?
(1) 352 (2) 252 (3) 242 (4) 142 (5) None of these In
Q. No. 16, 252 is the correct answer. So your answer would be (2). Q.17. 20 × 1 2 = ?
(1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 12 (4) 20 (5) None of these
The correct answer is 10. But neither 1 nor 2 nor 3 nor 4 shows this answer. Therefore your answer is (5).
Now attempt the following questions.
Q.18. 0.7 × 0.5 = ?
(1) 35 (2) 0.35 (3) 0.0035 (4) 0.035 (5) None of these
Q.19. 24 65 × 13 56 × 5 7 = ?
(1) 3 49 (2) 15 245 (3) 3 77 (4) 15 56 (5) None of these
Q.20. (27 + 498) ÷ 25 = ?
(1) 17 (2) 25 (3) 21 (4) 12 (5) None of these
Some of the problems may require arithmetical reasoning. For example :
Q.21. At 25 paise each, how many paise will 6 lemons cost ?
(1) 75 (2) 100 (3) 150 (4) 200 (5) None of these
the answer, of course, is 150, which is answer No.3.
Q.22. Which of the following can be an exact multiple of 4 ?
(1) 27114 (2) 58204 (3) 48402 (4) 32286 (5) None of these
Q.23. If the profit made by selling a pen for Rs.10 is as much as its cost, what is the cost price of the pen ?
(1) Nil (2) Rs.5 (3) Rs.10 (4) Rs.20 (5) None of these
Test IV : Test of Clerical Aptitude
Study the sample questions given below. In each question a combination of name and address is given in the first column at the left followed by four such combinations one each under the columns 1, 2, 3 and 4. You have to find out the combination which is exactly the same as the combination in the first column. The number of the column which contains that combination is the answer. If all the combinations are different, the answer is 5. 1 2 3 4 5
Q.24. S R Bhatt S R Bhatt S R Bhatt S R Bhatti S R Bhutt None 36, Bora Street 36, Bora Street 39, Bora Street 36, Bora Street 36, Bora Street Bombay-400096 Bombay-400096 Bombay-400096 Bombay-400096 Bombay-400096
Q.25. S. Narayanan S. Narayana S. Narainan S. Narayanan S. Narayanan None Amar Apt. 62, Amar Apt. 62, Amar Apt. 62, Amar Apt.62, Amara Apt.62, Bombay-400011 Bombay-400011 Bombay-400011 Bombay-400011 Bombay-400011
Directions :
The item in each question is to be classified into one of the following five Heads of expenditure : (1) Education, (2) Food, (3) Health, (4) Travel, (5) Miscellaneous. The number preceding the head of expenditure, 1 or 2 or 3 or 4 or 5, as the case may be is the answer.
Q.26. Purchase of Rice.
Since this item falls under the Head of expenditure ‘Food’, the answer is “2”.
Test V : Test of Computer Knowledge
This test is designed to test your basic knowledge of computers.
Q.27. The function of CPU is to ——-
(1) provide external storage of text (2) create a hard copy (3) create a new software
(4) read, interpret and process the information and instructions (5) None of these
Q.28. Pick the odd man out ——-
(1) Monitor (2) Keyboard (3) Floppy Drive (4) Windows (5) Hard Disk Drive
Q.29. The full form of LAN is ——-
(1) Local Access Network (2) Local Area Network (3) Long Area Node
(4) Local Area Node (5) None of these
Q.30. Database is a ——-
(1) collection of unrelated facts (2) collection of organized information in a structural way
(3) hardware storage area (4) base in which computer can launch (5) none of these Now follow the correct method of showing your answer with HB Pencil, and mark your answers to all the 30questions given so far in this booklet on the specimen answersheet given below. This will give you practice in correctly marking your answers. Answers to first twoquestions have been marked for you. Portion of Answersheet for solving practice question.

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Vijaya Bank PO Exam Quantitative Aptitude Solved Questions Vijaya Bank Probationary Officers Quantitative Aptitude Sample Questions

Directions—(Q. 1–6) What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions ?
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1. 196 × 948 ÷ 158 = ?
(A) 1156
(B) 1200
(C) 1188
(D) 1176
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
2. (786 × 64) ÷ 48 = ?
(A) 1050
(B) 1024
(C) 1048
(D) 1036
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
3. 3·5 + 11·25 × 4·5 – 32·5 = ?
(A) 18·275
(B) 21·625
(C) 32·375
(D) 25·45
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
4. (2640 ÷ 48) × (2240 ÷ 35) = ?
(A) 3520
(B) 3515
(C) 3495
(D) 3490
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
5. 7414 + 3698 + 1257 + 1869 = ?
(A) 14328
(B) 14438
(C) 13428
(D) 13248
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
6. (98360 + 25845 – 36540) ÷ 2500 = ?
(A) 36·585
(B) 30·082
(C) 32·085
(D) 35·066
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 7–11) What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series ?
7. 1, 9, 25, 49, ?, 169
(A) 100
(B) 64
(C) 81
(D) 121
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
8. 3, 23, 43, ?, 83, 103
(A) 33
(B) 53
(C) 63
(D) 73
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
9. 748, 737, 715, 682, 638, ?
(A) 594
(B) 572
(C) 581
(D) 563
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
10. 121, 117, 108, 92, 67, ?
(A) 31
(B) 29
(C) 41
(D) 37
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
11. 50, 26, 14, ?, 5, 3·5
(A) 6
(B) 8
(C) 10
(D) 12
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
12. The ratio of ducks and frogs in a pond is 37 : 39 respectively. The average number of ducks and frogs in the pond is 152. What is the number of frogs in the pond ?

(A) 148
(B) 152
(C) 156
(D) 144
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
13. The number of employees in Companies A, B and C are in a rtio of 4 : 5 : 6 respectively. If the number of employees in the three Companies is increased by 25%, 30% and 50% respectively, what will be the new ratio of employees working in Companies A, B and C respectively ?
(A) 13 : 10 : 18
(B) 10 : 13 : 17
(C) 13 : 15 : 18
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
14. The average of five positive numbers is 213. The average of the first two numbers is 233·5 and the average of last two numbers is 271. What is the third number ?
(A) 64
(B) 56
(C) 106
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
15. Sonali invests 15% of her monthly salary in insurance policies. She spends 55% of her monthly salary in shopping and on household expenses. She saves the remaining amount of Rs. 12,750. What is Sonali’s monthly income ?
(A) Rs. 42,500
(B) Rs. 38,800
(C) Rs. 40,000
(D) Rs. 35,500
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
16. In how many different ways can the letters of the word ‘ARISE’ be arranged ?
(A) 90
(B) 60
(C) 180
(D) 120
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
17. What approximate amount of compound interest can be obtaied on an amount of Rs. 9650 at the rate of 6 p.c.p.a. at the end of 3 years ?

(A) Rs. 1737
(B) Rs. 1920
(C) Rs. 1720
(D) Rs. 1860
(E) Rs. 1843
Ans : (E)
18. A milkman sells 120 litres of milk for Rs. 3360 and he sells 240 litres of milk for Rs. 6120. How much concession does the trader give per litre of milk, when he sells 240 litres of milk ?
(A) Rs. 2
(B) Rs. 3·5
(C) Rs. 2·5
(D) Rs. 1·5
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
19. When 3626 is divided by the square of a number and the answer so obtained is multiplied by 32, the final answer obtained is 2368. What is the number ?
(A) 7
(B) 36
(C) 49
(D) 6
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
20. The sum of the two digits of a two digit number is 14. The difference between the first digit and the second digit of the two digit number is 2. What is the product of the two digits of the two digit number ?
(A) 56
(B) 48
(C) 45
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
21. A car runs at the speed of 50 kms per hour when not serviced and runs at 60 kms/hr. when serviced. After servicing the car covers a certain distance in 6 hours. How much time will the car take to cover the same distance when not serviced ?
(A) 8·2 hours
(B) 6·5 hours
(C) 8 hours
(D) 7·2 hours
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 22–24) What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions ? (You are not expected to calculate the exact value.)
22. (4863 + 1174 + 2829) ÷ 756 = ?
(A) 18
(B) 16
(C) 12
(D) 9
(E) 22
Ans : (C)
23. 37·35 + 13·064 × 3·46 = ?
(A) 89
(B) 83
(C) 76
(D) 79
(E) 85
Ans : (B)
24. 54 × 746 ÷ 32 = ?
(A) 1259
(B) 1268
(D) 1248
(E) 1236
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DRDO SET Exam Electronics and Communication Engineering Syllabus

DRDO SET Electronics and Communication Engineering – EC Syllabus

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Electronic Devices: Energy bands in silicon, intrinsic and extrinsic silicon. Carrier transport in silicon: diffusion current, drift current, mobility, and resistivity. Generation and recombination of carriers. p-n junction diode, Zener diode, tunnel diode, BJT, JFET, MOS capacitor, MOSFET, LED, p-I-n and avalanche photo diode, Basics of LASERs. Device technology: integrated circuits fabrication process, oxidation, diffusion, ion implantation, photolithography, n-tub, p-tub and twin-tub CMOS process.

Networks: Network graphs: matrices associated with graphs; incidence, fundamental cut set and fundamental circuit matrices. Solution methods: nodal and mesh analysis. Network theorems: superposition, Thevenin and Norton’s maximum power transfer, Wye-Delta transformation. Steady state sinusoidal analysis using phasors. Linear constant coefficient differential equations; time domain analysis of simple RLC circuits, Solution of network equations using Laplace transform: frequency domain analysis of RLC circuits. 2-port network parameters: driving point and transfer functions. State equations for networks.

Electromagnetics: Elements of vector calculus: divergence and curl; Gauss’ and Stokes’ theorems, Maxwell’s equations: differential and integral forms. Wave equation, Poynting vector. Plane waves: propagation through various media; reflection and refraction; phase and group velocity; skin depth. Transmission lines: characteristic impedance; impedance transformation; Smith chart; impedance matching; S parameters, pulse excitation. Waveguides: modes in rectangular waveguides; boundary conditions; cut-off frequencies; dispersion relations. Basics of propagation in dielectric waveguide and optical fibers. Basics of Antennas: Dipole antennas; radiation pattern; antenna gain.

Analog Circuits: Small Signal Equivalent circuits of diodes, BJTs, MOSFETs and analog CMOS. Simple diode circuits, clipping, clamping, rectifier. Biasing and bias stability of transistor and FET amplifiers. Amplifiers: single-and multi-sta.

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NTPC Executive Trainee Placement Paper Held on 12th July 2010 NTPC Executive Trainee GD and PI Questions

Hi friends! I am Obli Rajesh. I got selected as Executive Trainee-2010 in NTPC.I belong to mechanical discipline. I want to share my experience about the GD & PI process of NTPC.

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The written test was held on 2/5/2010.The written test had 85 questions with 1/4th negative marking. The results of the written test were declared on 3rd June 2010…The total number of candidates short listed was 1647 for 438 posts. So the ratio will be 1:4.the GD & PI were held at PMI, Noida.

My GD & PI was on 12-july-2010. The reporting time is 8:00 am. First, they will verify your original documents. Each one will be given a number as per their branch. For ex: Mech 1,2,3…..Electrical 1,2,3,…and so on.

Then the GD will be held. Batches of 8 members will be formed. The time for gd is 10 minutes. One can speak either in hindi or English. There will be two judges. Two topics will be given. Out of which the group has to decide about which topic they are going to speak. My GD started at 10am.

After the GD the PI is held. My turn came at 11:15am. It was a panel interview. There were five members in the board. One was the chairman. The panel members are very experienced. They seem to be around 50-60 yrs of age.

I had my summer training in Hyundai motors. My subjects of interest are thermodynamics and refrigeration & air conditioning. Some of the questions asked to me are:
1. What are the types of clutches?
2. What is the purpose of clutch?
3. What is the name of the clutch used in cars?
4. What is automatic transmission? How it works?
5. Do you know about hydraulic clutch?
6. What is the specialty of i20?
7. What kind of layout used in Hyundai assembly line?
8. What subject you want me to ask?
9. State the Second law of thermodynamics?
10. What is common between the two statements?
11. What is exergy?
12. What is availability?
13. Draw psychrometric chart?
14. How to find the dew point temperature?
15. Plot Sensible cooling?
16. Plot cooling and humidification?
17. Do you know about sensible heat factor line?
18. What is dryness fraction?
19. Plot dryness fraction on T-S diagram?
20. Which point represents zero dryness and which point represents dryness
fraction of one?
21. What apparatus will be used to measure both dry bulb and wet bulb
temperature?
22. Have you seen it?
23. You have not even seen it?
24. Does it have a handle?
25. Why it should be rotated in the air?
26. What is the type of cloth used to cover the bulb?
27. Can I use the cloth from your shirt?
28. What will be the temperature if I use it outside this room?
29. Which will be higher either DBT or WBT?
30. What is the state of this liquid in this bottle?
31. Will it have zero dryness fractions?
32. Plot the boiling of liquid on T-S diagram?
33. What is dew point depression?
34. For what it is used?
Besides these I was also asked about my native place. They asked about the SAIL steel plant in my home town (Salem, TN). My interview lasted for 30-35 minutes. It wasn’t easy. It is a combination of both hr and tech.

The interviewers will also try to stress u. They will make comments abt u. but be calm and collected. That will help u to sail through. The weightage given for written, GD & PI are in the ratio 85:5:10. So a good written score will definitely help u. The results were declared on 21/8/10. I am joining NTPC on 9th September 2010. ALL THE BEST.CLICK HERE FOR MORE RESULTS JOB

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Vijaya Bank Probationary Officers Exam Sample Questions Bank Probationary Officers Solved Paper

Model Paper For Different Bank Probationary Officers Reasoning Ability Test
Directions—(Q. 1–5) For each of the following questions there is some relati onship between the two terms to the left of :: and the same relationship obt ains between the two terms to its right. In each of thesequestions the four th term is missing. This term is one of the alternatives among the five term s given below. Find out this term.

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1. ABCD is related to BEGI in the same way as BCDE is related to … ?
(A) ADFH
(B) CFHJ
(C) CDEF
(D) CEGI
Ans : (B)
2. ABEF is related to BCFG in the same way as GHKL is related to … ?
(A) FGKJ
(B) HILM
(C) HIKJ
(D) HIML
Ans : (B)
3. BYCX is related to AZDW in the same way as DWEV is related to … ?
(A) CEXV
(B) CXFU
(C) EVFU

(D) EWCX
Ans : (B)
4. ‘CIRCLE’ is related to ‘RICELC’ in the same way as ‘SQUARE’ is related
to—
(A) UQSERA
(B) QUSERA
(C) UQSAER
(D) QSUERA
Ans : (A)
5. ‘JKLM’ is related to ‘XYZA’ in the same way as ‘NOPQ’ is related to—
(A) RSTU
(B) YZAB
(C) DEFG
(D) BCDE
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 6–15) Each of the following questions has four alternative r esponses. Select the correct response.
6. Which one of the following is same as liver, heart, kidney?
(A) Nose
(B) Blood
(C) Urine
(D) Lung

Ans : (D)
7. Which one of the following is same as uncle, aunt, brother?
(A) Child
(B) Boy
(C) Adult
(D) Nephew
Ans : (D)
8. Which one of the following is same as Jute, Cotton, Wool ?
(A) Nylon
(B) Rayon
(C) Silk
(D) Terylene
Ans : (C)
9. Which one of the following is same as lead, convince, allure?
(A) Direct
(B) Order
(C) Initiate
(D) Fascinate
Ans : (D)
10. Which one of the following is same as flood, fire, cyclone?
(A) Accident

(B) Rain
(C) Earthquake
(D) Damage
Ans : (C)
11. Which one of the following is same as carpenter, plumber, electrician ?
(A) Doctor
(B) Blacksmith
(C) Teacher
(D) Lawyer
Ans : (B)
12. Which one of the following is same as cork, plug, dam ?
(A) Obstruction
(B) Drain
(C) Pipe
(D) Tap
Ans : (A)
13. Which one of the following is same as red, yellow, blue?
(A) Sky
(B) Dark
(C) Green
(D) Bright

Ans : (C)
14. Which one of the following is same as desire, wish, want ?
(A) Pleasant
(B) Feel
(C) Anxiety
(D) Satisfy
Ans : (C)
15. Which one of the following is same as ohm, volt, amp. ?
(A) Light
(B) Metre
(C) Hour
(D) Watt
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 16–20) In each of the sentences given below, there are two qu estions marks given one in the beginning and the other at the end. To fill u p the question marks, there are few alternatives. Choose the correct alterna tive.
16. ( ? ) is related to Masculine in the same way Woman is related to ?
(A) Disguise, Modest
(B) Capacity, Woman
(C) Man, Feminine
(D) Brave, Mrs.
Ans : (C)

17. ( ? ) is to Sky as Fish is to ?
(A) Blue, Swim
(B) Bird, Water
(C) Open, Hook
(D) Tree, Colour
Ans : (B)
18. ( ? ) is to Uncle as Mother is to ?
(A) Brother, Brought-up
(B) Father, Aunt
(C) Cousin, Beautiful
(D) Aunt, Father
Ans : (D)
19. ( ? ) is to Sri Lanka as Delhi is to ?
(A) Columbo, India
(B) Kathmandu, Capital
(C) India, Paris
(D) Island, Harbour
Ans : (D)
20. ( ? ) is to Ivory as Deer is to ?
(A) White, Hunt
(B) Elephant, Horn

(C) Huge, Rare
(D) Costly, Scarce
Ans : (B)
Directions—From questions 21 to 25 fill the correct pair in place of questio
n marks.
21. Table is to ( ? ) as Cup is to ?
(A) Furniture, Tea
(B) Student, Horse
(C) Wood, Hot
(D) Chair, Plate
Ans : (D)
22. Sugar is to ( ? ) as Mava is to ?
(A) Sweet, Sour
(B) Energy, Machine
(C) Sugarcane, Milk
(D) White, Sweet
Ans : (C)
23. ( ? ) is to Sun as Rain is to ?
(A) Moon, Rainbow
(B) Light, Cloud
(C) Sky, Wet

(D) Day, Night
Ans : (B)
24. ( ? ) is to Brain as Mouth is to ?
(A) Skull, Tongue
(B) Hat, Lips
(C) Hair, Voice
(D) Turban, Saliva
Ans : (A)
25. ( ? ) is to Touch as Ear is to ?
(A) Hand, Know
(B) Experience, Feeling
(C) Skin, Hear
(D) Hair, Dirt
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 26–30) In Column I are listed certain groups of individuals while in Column II are listed some of the characteristics against each gr oup of individuals which are common to each member of that group.
Column I Column II
FHIJ TW
IJK PT
IJLM SUW
GHIKM RV

GHI QRV
FGI PR
HIJ QTW
IJL QSUW
GIJ PQS
26. Which individual has all the above characteristics?
(A) J
(B) I
(C) H
(D) M
Ans : (B)
27. Which characteristics are found either in J or in K or in both but in M?
(A) P, Q, T
(B) P, Q, R, S
(C) Q, R, S, T
(D) U, V, T
Ans : (A)
28. Which Characteristics is common to G and H but not in M?
(A) S
(B) B
(C) Q

(D) R
Ans : (C)
29. Which Characteristics are common to H and J but not in K?
(A) P, Q
(B) Q, W
(C) Q, R
(D) R, W
Ans : (B)
30. Which Characteristics is not found either in F or in L or in both?
(A) Q
(B) U
(C) S
(D) V
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 31–35) In each of the following question, three words are giv en with four alternatives. One of the four alternatives is same as the three words given in beginning. Then find out the correct alternative answer.
31. Which one is the same as Mumbai, Kolkata, Cochin ?
(A) Delhi
(B) Kanpur
(C) Chennai
(D) Sholapur

Ans : (C)
32. Which one is the same as Coal, Ebony and Soot?
(A) Blush
(B) Raven
(C) Ash
(D) Rust
Ans : (C)
33. Which one is the same as Basket, Pail and Pan ?
(A) Knife
(B) Spoon
(C) Fork
(D) Bowl
Ans : (D)
34. Which one is the same as Emancipate, Free and Release?
(A) Ignore
(B) Pardon
(C) Liberate
(D) Quit
Ans : (C)
35. Which one is the same as Daisy, Pansy and Rose?
(A) Bed

(B) Violet
(C) Plant
(D) Red
Ans : (C)
Directions—Find out the correct answer in each of the questions from 36 to
40.
36. Which one is the same as Arid, Parched and Droughty ?
(A) Draft
(B) Cow
(C) Earth
(D) Dry
Ans : (D)
37. Which one is the same as Grandfather, Father and Brother?
(A) Baby
(B) Father-in-law
(C) Son
(D) Son-in-law
Ans : (C)
38. Which one is the same as Yellow, Orange and Green?
(A) Tree
(B) Purple
(C) Grass

(D) Leaf
Ans : (B)
39. Which one is the same as Lungs, Liver and Kidneys?
(A) Heart
(B) Intestines
(C) Testis
(D) Neck
Ans : (A)
40. Which one is the same as Lock, Shut and Fasten?
(A) Window
(B) Door
(C) Block
(D) Iron
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 41–45) In each of the following questions, three words are gi ven. Under them four alternatives are provided, one of which expresses most effectively the general characteristic if these three words. That alternativ e is your answer.
41. Aeroplane, Train, Truck
(A) Speed
(B) Rooms
(C) Wheels

(D) Transport
Ans : (D)
42. Wolf, Leopard, Deer
(A) Meat eater
(B) Jungles
(C) Mammals
(D) Cruel
Ans : (C)
43. Sword, Gun, Pistol
(A) Arms
(B) Constable
(C) Bullet
(D) War
Ans : (A)
44. Fraud, Jealously, Hatred
(A) Destruction
(B) Envy
(C) Human Characteristics
(D) Quality
Ans : (C)
45. Novel, Epic, Drama

(A) Subject
(B) Literature
(C) Poetry
(D) Knowledge
Ans : (B)
Directions—(Q. 46–50) In each of the following questions, three words are g iven. They are followed by four words, one of which stands for the class to which these three words belong. Identify that word.
46. Wheat, Barley, Rice
(A) Food
(B) Gram
(C) Cereal
(D) Agriculture
Ans : (C)
47. Coal, Iron, Mica
(A) Rock
(B) Minerals
(C) Gold
(D) Earth
Ans : (B)
48. Honesty, Credibility, Reliability
(A) Quality

(B) Dependability
(C) Charter
(D) Nicety
Ans : (A)
49. Cap, Coat, Trousers
(A) Smart
(B) Shirt
(C) Dress
(D) Tailor
Ans : (C)
50. Stool, Table, Chair
(A) Bench
(B) Furniture
(C) Carpet
(D) Office
Ans : (B)
Directions—(Q. 51–60) For each of the following questions, there are two wo rds and five alternative answers. In each of the alternative answers there are two words. Then find out the alternative whose two words have the same relation as in the two words given in question.
51. Resignation : Office ::
(A) Competition : Game
(B) Illness : Hospital

(C) Abdication : Throne
(D) Moisture : Rain
(E) Appointment : Interview
Ans : (C)
52. Bunch : Key ::
(A) Hound : Pack
(B) Team : Competition
(C) Beehive : Bee
(D) Examination : Subject
(E) Bouquet : Flower
Ans : (E)
53. Profit : Loss ::
(A) Success : Failure
(B) Rupee : Paisa
(C) Whole : Part
(D) Multiplication : Addition
(E) Adult : Child
Ans : (A)
54. Sapling : Tree ::
(A) Horse : Mare
(B) Student: Teacher

(C) Bud : Flower
(D) Tree : Furniture
(E) River : Brook
Ans : (C)
55. Supervisor : Worker ::
(A) Junior : Senior
(B) Superior : Inferior
(C) Elder : Younger
(D) Debtor : Creditor
(E) Officer : Clerk
Ans : (E)
56. Malaria : Mosquito ::
(A) Poison : Death
(B) Rat : Plague
(C) Epidemic : Bacteria
(D) Cholera : Water
(E) Medicine : Disease
Ans : (D)
57. Paisa : Rupee ::
(A) Kilogram : Quintal
(B) Metre : Centimetre

(C) Coin : Money
(D) Weight : Ton
(E) Rupee : Wealth
Ans : (A)
58. Poet : Verse ::
(A) Prose : Novelist
(B) Author : Book
(C) Novel : Prose
(D) Publication : Editor
(E) Summary : Paraphrase
Ans : (B)
59. Water : Thirst ::
(A) Food : Hunger
(B) Sun : Energy
(C) Appetite : Meal
(D) Ice-cream : Cold
(E) Poison : Death
Ans : (A)
60. Pulp : Paper ::
(A) Wood : Table
(B) Cloth : Shirt

(C) Yarn : Fabric
(D) Iron : Steel
(E) Wood : Sawdust
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 61–70) For each of the following questions, there are two wo rds and eight alternative answers. Then find out two such alternatives the relation in which is the same as in the two words given in the beginning.
61. Trees and Forest
(A) Ocean (B) Page
(C) Books (D) Study
(E) Library (F) Ship
(G) Boys (H) Classes
Ans : (C, E)
62. Constable and Police
(A) Clerk (B) Hospital
(C) Medicine (D) Mother
(E) Girl (F) Doctor
(G) File (H) House
Ans : (B, F)
63. Brother-in-law and Sister
(A) I (B) Youth
(C) Female-companion (D) Wife

(E) My (F) Beautiful Woman
(G) Damsel (H) Sister-in-law
Ans : (B, G)
64. Cold and Hot
(A) January (B) Monday
(C) Year (D) June
(E) March (F) Thursday
(G) Month (H) August
Ans : (A, D)
65. High and Low
(A) Far (B) Rent
(C) Next (D) Near
(E) Distance (F) Fair
(G) Last (H) Clean
Ans : (A, D)
66. Unsuccess and Laziness
(A) Study (B) Success
(C) Day (D) School
(E) Labour (F) Lazy
(G) Game (H) Honesty
Ans : (E, B)

67. Car and Garage
(A) Horse (B) Grass
(C) Bird (D) Water
(E) Man (F) Stable
(G) Animal (H) Hive
Ans : (A, F)
68. Hand and Fingers
(A) Foot (B) Eyes
(C) Hat (D) Teeth
(E) Head (F) Stomach
(G) Nose (H) Hair
Ans : (E, H)
69. Oxygen and Man
(A) Petrol (B) Stool
(C) Carpenter (D) Sky
(E) Driver (F) Wood
(G) Water (H) Fish
Ans : (G, H)
70. Neat and Clean
(A) Dirty (B) Tidy
(C) Route (D) White

(E) Wise (F) Ravi
(G) Foul (H) Beauty
Ans : (A, G)
Directions—(Q.71–75) In each of the following two columns, the groups of t hree words are given. Compare two columns and find the pairs given below e ach question, which satisfy the same relationship between the two groups o f that pair.
Column I
(A) Cereal, Wheat, Tomato
(B) Seeds, Apple, Fruit
(C) Mother, Sister, Female
(D) Teacher, Writer, Speaker
(E) Stool, Furniture, Table
Column II
(P) Apple, Banana, Fruit
(Q) Wheat, Barley, Cereals
(R) Doctor, Painter, Father
(S) Cow, Mammal, Animal
(I) Soldier, Army, Civilian
71. (A) BP
(B) AQ
(C) CR
(D) EP
Ans : (D)
72. (A) BR
(B) AT
(C) CS
(D) DP
Ans : (C)
73. (A) DR
(B) BR
(C) ET
(D) CS
Ans : (A)
74. (A) BS
(B) AT
(C) AQ
(D) DQ
Ans : (B)
75. (A) CR
(B) EQ
(C) BQ
(D) DS

Ans : (B)
Labels: BANK PO REASONING, GENERAL INTELLIGENCE TEST BANK PO REASONING, Model Paper For Different Bank Probationary Office rs Exam, Reasoning Test : Bank PO, SBI BANK CLERK REASONING 0 comments
GENERAL INTELLIGENCE TEST : BANK PO

GENERAL INTELLIGENCE TEST
BANK PO , MBA , RRB , LIC ASSISTANT
1. Piyush is 18th from either end of a row of boys. How many boys are there in that row ?
(A) 26
(B) 32
(C) 24
(D) 35
2. ‘Medicine’ is related to ‘Patient’ in the same way as ‘Education’ is relat
ed to—
(A) Teacher
(B) School
(C) Student
(D) Tuition
3. Fill in the missing letter in the following series—
S, V, Y, B, ?

(A) C
(B) D
(C) E
(D) G
4. What should come in the place of question mark in the following series ?
3, 8, 6, 14, ?, 20
(A) 11
(B) 10
(C) 8
(D) 9
5. Select the correct option in place of the question mark—
AOP, CQR, EST, GUV, ?
(A) IYZ
(B) HWX
(C) IWX
(D) JWX
6. What should come in the place of question mark in the following series ?
1, 4, 9, 25, 36, ?
(A) 48
(B) 49
(C) 52
(D) 56
7. In a class of 60 where boys are twice that of girls, Raman ranked 17th fr om the top. If there are 9 boys ahead of Raman, how many girls are after her in the rank ?
(A) 26
(B) 12
(C) 10
(D) 33
8. If ‘BOAT’ is written as ‘YLZG’ in a code language how is ‘EGG’ to be w ritten in the same language ?
(A) VSS
(B) URR
(C) VTT
(D) UTT
9. In a code language SINGER is written as AIBCED then GINGER will be
written in the same code as—
(A) CBIECD
(B) CIBCED
(C) CBICED
(D) CIBECD
10. If BAT is coded as 283, CAT is coded as 383 and ARE is coded as 801 , then the code for BETTER is—
(A) 213310
(B) 213301
(C) 123301
(D) 012334
11. If water is called black, black is called tree, tree is called blue, blue is called rain, rain is called pink and pink is called fish in a certain language then what is the colour of sky called in that language ?
(A) Blue
(B) Fish
(C) Rain
(D) Pink
12. A man walks 3 km northwards and then turns left and goes 2 km. He again turns left and goes 3 km. He turns right and walks straight. In which dire ction he is walking now ?
(A) East
(B) West
(C) North
(D) South
13. One morning after sunrise Vikas and Shanu were standing in a lawn with their back towards each other. Vikas’s shadow fell exactly towards left-h and side. Which direction Shanu was facing ?
(A) East
(B) West
(C) North
(D) South
14. Neelam is taller than Paumpi but not as tall as Mihir. Roma is taller th an Namarata but not as tall as Paumpi. Who among them is the tallest ?
(A) Mihir
(B) Paumpi
(C) Namarata
(D) Neelam
15. In an examination Raja got more marks than Mohit but not as many as M inal. Minal got more marks than Suresh and Rupali. Suresh got less marks than Mohit but his marks are not the lowest in the group. Who is second i n the descending order of marks ?
(A) Minal
(B) Rupali
(C) Raja
(D) None of these
16. Pointing to a photograph of a girl, Raja said “She has no sister or daug hter but her mother is the only daughter of my mother’’. How is the girl in the photograph related with Raja’s mother ?
(A) Sister in law
(B) Grand Daughter
(C) Daughter in law
(D) None of these
17. If Suyash’s father is Babloo’s father’s only son and Babloo has neither a brother nor a daughter. What is the relationship between Suyash and Babloo ?
(A) Uncle–Nephew
(B) Father–Daughter
(C) Father–Son
(D) Grandfather–Grandson
18. An application was received by inward clerk in the afternoon of a weekda y. Next day he forwarded it to the table of the senior clerk, who was on lea ve that day. The senior clerk next day evening put up the application to the desk officer. Desk officer studied the application and disposed off the matter on the same day, i.e., Friday. Which day the application was received by the inward clerk ?
(A) Tuesday
(B) Earlier week’s Saturday
(C) Wednesday
(D) Monday
19. Flight to Mumbai leaves every 5 hours. At the information counter I learn t that the flight took off 25 minutes before. If the time now is 10 : 45 a.m. , what is the time for the next flight ?
(A) 2 : 20 a.m.
(B) 3 : 30 a.m.
(C) 3 : 55 p.m.
(D) 3 : 20 p.m.
20. Babloo ranked 16th from the top and 29th from the bottom among those w ho passed an examination. 6 boys did not participate in the competition an d 5 failed in the examination. How many boys were there in that class ?
(A) 44
(B) 40

(C) 50
(D) 55
21. Indra is 7th from the left and Jaya is 5th from the right. When they inte rchange their position Jaya becomes 19th from the right. What is Indra’s posi tion from the left ?
(A) 21st
(B) 19th
(C) 23rd
(D) 20th
22. If EARTHQUAKE is coded as MOGPENJOSM then EQUATE will be
coded as—
(A) MENOPM
(B) MENOMP
(C) NJOGPM
(D) MNJOPM
23. If COUNTRY is coded in certain way as EMWLVPA, ELECTORATE wil
l be coded in the same manner as—
(A) CJCEFQPYWC
(B) CJGERQTYVG
(C) CNCERQPCRG
(D) GJGAVMTYVC
24. ‘Air’ is to ‘Bird’ as ‘Water’ is to…
(A) Drink
(B) Fish
(C) Wash
(D) Swim
25. ‘Pencil’ is to ‘Write’ as ‘Knife’ is to ……….
(A) Injure
(B) Peel
(C) Prick
(D) Attack
Answers with Hints
1. (D)
2. (C) As ‘Medicine’ is used by a ‘Patient’ in the same way ‘Education’ is u
sed by a ‘Student’.
3. (C)
4. (D)
5. (C)
6. (B)
7. (B)
8. (C)
9. (B)
10. (A)
11. (C)

12. (A)
13. (D)
14. (A) Mihir > Neelam > Paumpi > Roma > Namrata
= The tallest is Mihir.
15. (C) Minal > Raja > Mohit > Suresh > Rupali
16. (B) The girl in the photograph is the daughter of Raja’s sister. Hence the
girl is grand daughter of Raja’s mother.
17. (C) Suyash is the son of Babloo.
18. (C) The desk officer received the application on Friday. Hence the seni
or clerk received it on Thursday and the inward clerk received the applicat
ion on Wednesday.
19. (D) The time for the next flight
= 10·45 – 0·25 + 5·00
= 15·20 = 3 : 20 p.m.
20. (D) Number of boys in the class
= (16 + 29 – 1) + 6 + 5
= 55
21. (A)
22. (D)
23. (D)
24. (B) As ‘Bird’ flies in ‘Air’ similarly ‘Fish’ swims in ‘Water’.
25. (D) As ‘Pencil’ is used to ‘Write’ similarly ‘Knife’ is used to ‘Attack’.

Labels: GENERAL INTELLIGENCE TEST BANK PO REASONING,
MBA GENERAL INTELLIGENCE, MBA GENERAL INTELLIGENCE SO
LVED QUESTIONS, RRB GENERAL INTELLIGENCE, SBI BANK CL
ERK REASONING 0 comments
SBI BANK CLERK 2008 SOLVED PAPER
Posted by Free Exam Original Paper Wednesday, June 11, 2008 at 4:01 AM
SBI BANK CLERK 2008 SOLVED PAPER
(HELD ON 06-01-2008)
Reasoning Ability
121. Among M, T, R and P, M is older than only P. T is older than R. Who
among them is the oldest ?
(A) T (B) R
(C) T or R (D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
122. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a grou
p. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) Hill (B) Valley
(C) Dam (D) River
(E) Mountain
123. How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters ES
RO using each letter only once in each word ?
(A) None (B) One
(C) Two (D) Three
(E) More than three
124. If ‘P’ denotes ‘+’; ‘R’ denotes ‘¸’, ‘T’ denotes ‘–’ and ‘W’ denotes ‘X
’, then—
40 R 8 W 10 T 12 P 16 = ?
(A) 50 (B) 46
(C) 30 (D) 70
(E) None of these
125. What should come next in the following number sequence ?
2 2 3 2 3 4 2 3 4 5 2 3 4 5 6 2 3 4 5 6 7 2 3 4
(A) 8 (B) 5
(C) 6 (D) 2
(E) None of these

126. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word CONSTABLE each
of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English a
lphabet ?
(A) None (B) One
(C) Two (D) Three
(E) More than three
127. In a certain code BOARD is written as 54#12 and MORE is written as
941$. How is DREAM written in that code ?
(A) 21$#9 (B) 2$1#9
(C) 51$#9 (D) 25$#9
(E) None of these
128. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a grou
p. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) 50 (B) 65
(C) 170 (D) 255
(E) 290
129. How many such digits are there in the number 5231698 each of which is
as far away from the beginning of the number as when the digits are rearr
anged in ascending order ?
(A) None (B) One
(C) Two (D) Three
(E) More than three
130. In a certain code CREAM is written as NBDBQ. How is BREAD written
in that code?
(A) EBFAQ (B) EBDAQ
(C) BEDQA (D) BEFQA
(E) None of these
Directions—(Q. 131–135) In each of the questions below are given three sta
tements followed by three Conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to
take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance f
rom commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which o
f the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disreg
arding commonly known facts.
131. Statements # Some flowers are bins. Some bins are handles. All handles
are sticks.
Conclusions # I. Some sticks are bins.
II. Some handles are flowers.
III. Some sticks are flowers.
(A) Only II follows
(B) Only III follows
(C) Only I and II follows
(D) Only I and III follows

(E) None of these
132. Statements # Some towers are windows. All windows are houses. Some
houses are temples.
Conclusions # I. Some towers are temples.
II. Some houses are towers.
III. Some temples are windows.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only II follows
(C) Only III follows
(D) Only I and II follows
(E) None of these
133. Statements # Some walls are doors. Some doors are cots. Some cots are
chairs.
Conclusions # I. Some chairs are doors.
II. Some cots are walls.
III. No chair is door.
(A) Only II follows
(B) Only III follows
(C) Only either I or III follows
(D) Only I follows
(E) None of these
134. Statements # All trees are gardens. All gardens are stones. All stones ar
e fences.
Conclusions # I. Some fences are gardens.
II. All gardens are fences.
III. Some stones are trees.
(A) Only I and II follow
(B) Only I and III follow
(C) Only II and III follow
(D) All follow
(E) None of these
135. Statements # All books are leaves. Some leaves are jungles. No jungle i
s box.
Conclusions # I. Some jungles are books.
II. No book is box.
III. Some leaves are boxes.
(A) None follows
(B) Only I follows
(C) Only II follows
(D) Only III follows
(E) Only I and III follow
Directions—(Q. 136–140) Study the follo-wing arrangement carefully and

answer the questions given below—
7 R E T 4 A 9 % D F 1 U # B @ 8 H I © W M H 3 2 V $ 5 N P 6 Q
136. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement, each o
f which is immediately preceded by a consonant and immediately followed
by a number ?
(A) None (B) One
(C) Two (D) Three
(E) More than three
137. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement, each of wh
ich is imme-diately preceded by a letter but not imme-diately followed by
a symbol ?
(A) None (B) One
(C) Two (D) Three
(E) More than three
138. How many such vowels are there in the above arrangement, each of wh
ich is immediately followed by a symbol ?
(A) None (B) One
(C) Two (D) Three
(E) More than three
139. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their po
sitions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that
does not belong to that group ?
(A) RTA (B) 9DF
(C) #@H (D) 3V5
(E) IWH
140. Which of the following is the fourth to the left of the twelfth from the l
eft end ?
(A) % (B) 8
(C) 2 (D) H
(E) None of these
Directions—(Q. 141–145) In each question below is given a group of digits f
ollowed by four combinations of letters/symbols lettered (A), (B), (C), and
(D). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents t
he group of digits based on the coding system and the condi-tions given bel
ow and mark the number of that combination as your answer. If none of the c
ombinations correctly represents the group of digits, mark (E), i.e. ‘None
of these’ as your answer.
Digit # 5 1 3 4 9 6 8 2 7
Letter/symbol # P A K % R @ D © M
Conditions #
(i) If the first digit is odd and the last digit is even, the codes for the first an
d last digits are to be reversed.

(ii) If both the first and the last digits are even, both are to be coded as *.
(iii) If both the first and the last digits are odd, both are to be coded as $.
141. 215349
(A) RAPK%© (B) *APK%*
(C) $APK%$ (D) ©PAK%R
(E) None of these
142. 671254
(A) @MA©P% (B) $MA©P$
(C) *MA©P* (D) %MA©P©
(E) None of these
143. 813469
(A) RAK%@D (B) DAK%@R
(C) DAP%@R (D) *AK%@*
(E) None of these
144. 794821
(A) MR%D©A (B) AR%D©M
(C) M%RD©A (D) $R%D©$
(E) None of these
145. 591426
(A) @RA%©P (B) PRA%©@
(C) @AR%©P (D) $RA%©*
(E) None of these
Directions—(Q. 146–150) Study the follo-wing information carefully and an
swer the questions given below.
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circle facing at the centre. D
is second to the left of F and third to the right of H. A is second to the rig
ht of F and an immediate neighbour of H. C is second to the right of B and F i
s third to the right of B. G is not an immediate neighbour of F.
146. How many of them are between H and C ?
(A) Two (B) Three
(C) Two or three (D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
147. Who is the immediate left of A ?
(A) H (B) E
(C) G (D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
148. In which of the following pairs is the first person sitting to the immedia
te left of the second person ?
(A) CD (B) BG
(C) HA (D) FC
(E) None of these
149. Who is fourth to the right of B ?

(A) E (B) C
(C) A (D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
150. What is E’s position with respect to G ?
(A) Second to the right
(B) Third of the left
(C) Third to the right
(D) Second to the left
(E) None of these
Directions—(Q. 151–155) In the following questions, the symbols @, ©, #,
$ and % are used with the following meaning as illustrated below—
‘P © Q’ means ‘P is either greater than or equal to Q’.
‘P % Q’means ‘P is either smaller than or equal to Q’.
‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q’.
‘P # Q’ means ‘P is smaller than Q’.
‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is greater than Q’.
Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be t
rue, find which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are defi
nitely true ?
Give answer (A), if only Conclusion I is true.
Give answer (B), if only Conclusion II is true.
Give answer (C), if either Conclusion I or II is true.
Give answer (D), if neither Conclusion I nor II is true.
Give answer (E), if both Conclusions I and II are true.
151. Statements : D $ N, N # F, F © T
Conclusions : I. T # N
II. D $ F
152. Statements : K © R, R $ F, F # B
Conclusions : I. B $ R
II. F # K
153. Statements : J $ M, M © K, K # N
Conclusions : I. J $ K
II. N $ M
154. Statements : F # T, T @ W, W $ H
Conclusions : I. F # H
II. F © H
155. Statements : M % T, T # R, R @ D
Conclusions : I. D $ T
II. R $ T

ANSWERS WITH EXPLANATION :-
121. (A) T, R > M > P and T > R
T is the oldest.
122. (C) All the rest are natural while ‘Dam’ is man made.
123. (E) The meaningful words formed with the letters ESRO are : ROS
E, SORE, EROS and SERO.
124. (E) ? = 40 R 8 W 10 T 12 P 16
= 40 ¸ 8 ´ 10 – 12 + 16
= 408 ´ 10 – 12 + 16
= 50 – 12 + 16
= 54
125. (B) 2, 23, 234, 2345, 23456, 234567, 234 5
126. (D)
ON, ST and AB.
127. (A) B ¾® 5 and M ¾® 9
O ¾® 4 O ¾® 4
A ¾® # R ¾® 1
R ¾® 1 E ¾® $
D ¾® 2
Hence
D ¾® 2
R ¾® 1
E ¾® $
A ¾® #
M ¾® 9
128. (D) 50 = (7)2 + 1
65 = (8)2 + 1
170 = (13)2 + 1
290 = (17)2 + 1
But 255 is not like this.
129. (D) 51 22 33 15 66 98 89
130. (B) As, Similarly,
131. (E)
Or
Only I follows.
132. (B)
Or
Only II follows.
133. (C)

Or
Only either I or III follows.
134. (B)
Only I and III follow.
135. (A)
Or
None follows.
136. (C) D F 1 and N P 6
137. (D) T 4 A , F 1 U and P 6 Q
138. (C) U # and I ©
139. (B)
140. (A) 12th element from the left is U and fourth to the left of U is %.
141. (E) 215349 ©APK%R
142. (C) 671254 *MA©P*
143. (B) 813469 DAK%@R
144. (D) 794821 $ R%D©$
145. (A) 591426 @RA%©P
For Qs. 146 to 150
Seating Plan is as shown below—
146. (B) 147. (B) 148. (E) 149. (A) 150. (B)
151. (D) D $ N ® D > N, N # F ® N <> N <> F (False)
152. (B) K © R ® K = R, R $ F ® R > F
and F # B ® F <> F <> R (False)
II. F # K ® F <> M, M © K ® M = K
and K # N ® K <> M = K <> K (True)
II. N $ M ® N > M (False)
154. (D) F # T ® F < t =" W"> H
F < t =" W"> H
I. F # H ® F < r =" D" r =" D"> T (True)
II. R $ T ® R > T (True)
Labels: SBI BANK CLERK REASONING, SBI PREVIOUS SOLVED PAP
ER 0 comments
Posted by Free Exam Original Paper Friday, June 6, 2008 at 10:17 PM

SBI Clerk Reasoning Sample Paper
1 In a certain code RIPPLE is written as 613382 & LIFE is written as 8192.
How is PILLER written in that code ?
(a) 318826 (b) 318286 (c) 618826
(d) 328816 (e) none of these
2 If GIVE is coded as 5137 and BAT is coded as 924, How is GATE coded?
(a) 5427 (b) 5724 (c) 5247
(d) 2547 (e) None of these
3 If PALE, is coded as 2134, EARTH is coded as 41590 , how is PEARL cod
ed in that code?
(a) 29530 (b) 24153 (c) 25413
(d) 25430 (e) None of these
4 If in a certain language , ENTRY is coded as 12345 & STEADY is coded a
s 931785 , then state which is the correct code for the SEDATE
(a) 918731 (b) 954185 (c) 814195
(d) 614781 (e) None of these
5 If in a certain language , ENTRY is coded as 12345 & STEADY is coded a
s 931785, then state which is the correct code for the ENDEAR
(a) 524519 (b) 174189 (c) 128174
(d) 124179 (e) 164983
6 If in a certain language CHARCOAL is coded as 45164913 & MORALE is
coded as 296137 , how is COACH coded in that language
(a) 38137 (b) 49148 (c) 48246 (d) 49145 (e) none of these
7 If in a certain language CHARCOAL is coded as 45164913 & MORALE is
coded as 296137 , how is COLLER coded in that language
(a) 397749 (b) 497758 (c) 483359 (d) 493376 (e) none of these
8 If in a certain language CHARCOAL is coded as 45164913 & MORALE i
s coded as 296137 , how is MECHRALE coded in that language
(a) 95378165 (b) 25378195 (c) 27456137 (d) 27386195 (e) none of these
9 If MISTAKE is coded as 9765412 & Naked is coded as 84123 , then what
will be the code for DISTANT ?
(a) 3765485 (b) 4798165 (c) 3697185
(d) 4768296 (e) none of these
10 If MISTAKE is coded as 9765412 & Naked is coded as 84123 , then wha
t will be the code for NEMISES ?
(a) 7598656 (b) 8597656 (c) 8297626 (d) 435985 (e) none of these
11 If ROPE is coded as 6821 & CHAIR is coded as 73456, then what will
be the code for CRAPE?
(a) 73456 (b) 76421 (c) 77246 (d) 77123 (e) None of these
12 In a certain code, 15789 is written as EGKPT and 2346 is written as ALU
R. How is 23549 written in that code ?
(a) ALEUT (b) ALGTU (c) ALGUT (d) ALGRT (e) None of these
13 In a certain code, a number 13479 is written as AQFJL and 5268 is writ
ten as DMPN. How is 396824 written in that code?
(a) QLPNKJ (b) QLPNMF (c) QLPMNF
(d) QLPNDF (e) None of these
In a certain language 36492 is written as SMILE and 058 is written as RUN,
How are the following figures coded in that language ?
Q:14 33980
(a) SSLNR (b) SSLRN (c) SLSNR
(d) SLNRS (e) None of these
15 6458
(a) MUIN (b) MINU (c) INUM
(d) MIUN (e) IUMN
16 92486
(a) LEIMN (b) ELINR (c) LEINM
(d) EILNM (e) LIENM
17 54324
(a) SIUEI (b) UISEI (c) USIIE
(d) UISIE (e) SUEII
18 90089
(a) NLLRN (b) LRLNN (c) LLRRN
(d) LRRNL (e) RLLNN
19 3425
(a) SEIU (b) SIUE (c) SRUI
(d) RUSI (e) SIEU
20 29463
(a) ELISM (b) ELIMS (c) LIMSE
(d) EILMS (e) None of these
21 If in a certain language PRIVATE is coded as 1234567 & RISK is coded
as 2398, How is RIVETS coded in that language?
(a) 687543 (b) 234769 (c) 496321
(d) 246598 (e) None of these.
22 If PLAY is coded as 8123 &RHYME is coded as 49367, How is MALE c
oded as ?
(a) 6217 (b) 6198 (c) 6395
(d) 6285 (e) None of these
23 In a certain code language 24685 is written as 33776. How is 35791 writt
en in that code.

(a) 44882 (b) 44880 (c) 46682
(d) 44682 (e) None of these.
24 In a certain code language 35796 is written as 44887. How is 35791 writt
en in that code
(a) 57914 (b) 55914 (c) 5934
(d) 5714 (e) None of these.
25 If MINJUR is coded as 312547 & TADA as 6898, How can MADURAI b
e coded as?
(a) 3498178 (b) 3894871 (c) 384971
(d) 3894781 (e) None of these.
ANSWER SHEET CLICK HERE FOR MORE RESULTS JOB
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
a c b a c d d c a c b c b a d
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25
c b d e b b a a b d
Answers With Explantion :-
1. The alphabets are coded as shown i. e. P as 3, I as 1, L as 8, E as 2, & R
as 6. So, PILLER is coded as 318826.
2. The alphabets are coded as shown i. e. G as 5, A as 2, T as 4 & E as 7.
So GATE is coded as 5247.
3. The alphabets are coded as shown i. e. p AS 2, E as 4, A as 1, R as 5, &
L as 3. So PEARL is coded as 24153.
4. S is coded as 9, E as 1, D as 8, A as 7 & T as 3. So SEDATE is coded as
918731.
5. E is coded as 1, N as 2, D as 8, A as 7 & R as 4. So ENDEAR is coded a
s 128174.
6. C is coded as 4, O as 9, A as 1 & H as 5.
7. C is code as 4, O as 9, L as 3, E as 7, & R as 6. So, COLLER is coded as
493376.
8. M is coded as 2, E as 7, C as 4, H as 5, R as 6, A as 1 & L as 3. So,
MECHRALE is coded as 27456137.
9. D is coded as 3, I as 7, S as 6, T as 5, A as 4, & N as 8. So the DISTANT
is coded as 3765485.
10. N is coded as 8, E as 2, M as 9, I as 7 & S as 6. So NEMISES is coded
as 8297626.
11. C is coded as 7, R as 6, A as 4, P as 2, & E as 1. So CRAPE is coded as
76421.
12. 2 is coded as A, 3 as L, 5 as G, 4 as U & 9 as T. So 23549 is coded as
ALGUT.
13. 3 is coded as Q, 9 as L, 6 as P, 8 as N, 2 as M & 4 as F. So 396824 is
coded as QLPNMF.
14. 3 is coded as S, 9 as L, 8 as N & 0 as R. So 33980 is coded as SSLNR.

15. 6 is coded as M, 4 as 1, 5 as U & 8 as N. So 6458 is coded as MIUN.
16. 9 is coded as L, 2 as E, 4 as I, 8 as N, & 6 as M. So, 92486 is coded as
LEINM.
17. 5 is coded U, 4 as I, 3 as S & 2 as E. So 54324 is coded as UISEI.
18. 9 is coded as L, 0 as R & 8 as N. So, 90089 is coded as LRRNL.
19. 3 is coded as S, 4 as I, 2 as E & 5 as U. So 3425 is coded as SIEU.
20. 2 is coded as E, 9 as L, 4 as I, 6 as M & 3 as S. So, 29463 is coded as
ELIMS.
21. R is coded as 2, I as 3, V as 4, E as 7, T as 6 & S as 9. So, RIVETS is c
oded as 234769.
22. Here M is coded as 6 , A is coded as 2 , L is coded as 1 , E is coded as 7
, therefore male is coded as 6217
23. In the code the letters at odd places are one place ahead & those at even
places are one place before the corresponding letter in the word. So in 3579
1, 3is written as 4, 5 as 4,7 as 8, 9 as 8 & 1 as 0. The code becomes 44880.
24. 4 will be written as 5, 5 as 6, 8 as 9, 2 as 1, 3 as 4. So the code is 5914.
25. Code is M as 3, A as 8, D as 9, U as 4, R as, 7 & I as 1. So, MADHRI i
s coded as 3894781.
Labels: BANK PO REASONING, SBI BANK CLERK REASONING 0 com
ments
SBI CLERK REASONING ABILITY MODEL PAPER 2008
Posted by Free Exam Original Paper Tuesday, June 3, 2008 at 4:52 AM
SBI CLERK REASONING ABILITY MODEL PAPER
Directions : – Select the related letters / word / number / figure from the giv
en alternatives
1 Editor : Magazine
(a) Movie (b) Scene
(c) Drama (d) Director
2 Hinduism , Christianity , Islam : Religion
(a) Ear , Nose , Eyesight : Vision (b) Plus , Minus , Multiple : division
(c) Winter , Spring , Summer : Season (d) Humid , Hot , Tundra : Region
3 WOLF : FLOW :: WARD : ?
(a) BROW (b) DRAW
(c) CRAW (d) SLAW
4 GRAIN : TIZRM :: BRAIN : ?
(a) XRIKL (b) YIZRM(c) OPRST (d) ASQMI
5 CUT : BDTVSU :: TIP : ?

(a) UVHJOQ (b) SUHJOQ
(c) USJHQO (d) SUJHOQ
Q-6 19 : 59 :: 17 : ?
(a) 51 (b) 53
(c) 55 (d) 57
Q-7 14 : 20 :: 16 : ?
(a) 23 (b) 48
(c) 10 (d) 42
Q-8 100 : 102 :: 100000 : ?
(a) 105 (b) 104
(c) 1003 (d) 1004
DIRECTIONS : (QUESTIONS 9 to 13) select the one which is different from
the other three .
9
(a) Mile (b) Centimeter
(c) Litre (d) Yard
10
(a) High – Up (b) Past – Present
(c) Often – Seldom (d) Fresh – Stale
11
(a) 11 – 127 (b) 9 – 85
(c) 7 – 53 (d) 5 – 29
12
(a) 26 Z (b) 24 X
(c) 22 V (d) 20 S
13
(a) 8 , 64 , 112 (b) 36 , 6 , 206
(c) 48 , 4 , 202 (d) 9 , 27 , 263
14 In the following series of numerals , which digit has maximum frequency
?
846734378344563464348
(a) 8 (b) 6
(c) 4 (d) 3
15 If the day after tomorrow is Friday , what day will the third day after to
morrow be
(a) Saturday (b) Monday
(c) Sunday (d) Friday
16 If the ratio of the area of two squares is 16 : 1 , then the ratio of their per
imeter is
(a) 4 : 1 (b) 16 : 1
(c) 1 : 3 (d) 3 : 4
17 The shade of 18 ft high pole is 20 ft. . Find the length of shade of 27 ft lo

ng pole .
(a) 36 ft (b) 30 ft
(c) 34 ft (d) 40 ft
18 A scores more runs than B but less than C . D scores more than B but les
s than A . Who is the lowest scorer ?
(a) A (b) B
(c) C (d) D
19 In the alphabets from A to Z , which is the third letter to the right of t
he letter which is midway between K & S ?
(a) R (b) Q
(c) P (d) O
20 If first November falls on Monday , then what day will the 25th Novembe
r be ?
(a) Tuesday (b) Thursday
(c) Wednesday (d) Friday
21 The length of room is twice its breadth . If the area of the room is 242 sq
meters , then find out its breadth
(a) 11 (b) 10
(c) 12 (d) 9
22 If the product of two numbers is 10 & their sum is 7 , then the larger of
the two number is -
(a) – 2 (b) 2
(c) 5 (d) 3
23 Which letter is used only in one of the given words ?
Speak , Reap , Shark
(a) S (b) P
(c) K (d) H
24 A tortoise covers one kilometer in 4 hours . It takes rest for 20 minutes
after every kilometer .How much time does it takes for the tortoise to cover
3.5 kilometers ?
(a) 14 hours (b) 13
(c) 15 (d) 12
25 Of which of the following words , which one will be at the 3rd position in
the dictionary ?
1. socks 2. Shocks
3. Sharp 4. snooker
(a) 4 (b) 3
(c) 2 (d) 1
ANSWER
1 2 3 4 5
c c b b b
6 7 8 9 10

b d a c a
11 12 13 14 15
a d a c c
16 17 18 19 20
a b b a b
21 22 23 24 25
a c d c a
Labels: BANK PO REASONING, SBI BANK CLERK REASONING 0 com
ments
FREE SBI REASONING SOLVED PAPER
Posted by Free Exam Original Paper at 4:04 AM
FREE SBI REASONING SOLVED PAPER
1 In a certain code RIPPLE is written as 613382 & LIFE is written as 8192.
How is PILLER written in that code ?
(a) 318826 (b) 318286 (c) 618826
(d) 328816 (e) none of these
2 If GIVE is coded as 5137 and BAT is coded as 924, How is GATE coded?
(a) 5427 (b) 5724 (c) 5247
(d) 2547 (e) None of these
3 If PALE, is coded as 2134, EARTH is coded as 41590 , how is PEARL cod
ed in that code?
(a) 29530 (b) 24153 (c) 25413
(d) 25430 (e) None of these
4 If in a certain language , ENTRY is coded as 12345 & STEADY is coded a
s 931785 , then state which is the correct code for the SEDATE
(a) 918731 (b) 954185 (c) 814195
(d) 614781 (e) None of these
5 If in a certain language , ENTRY is coded as 12345 & STEADY is coded a
s 931785, then state which is the correct code for the ENDEAR
(a) 524519 (b) 174189 (c) 128174
(d) 124179 (e) 164983
6 If in a certain language CHARCOAL is coded as 45164913 & MORALE is
coded as 296137 , how is COACH coded in that language
(a) 38137 (b) 49148 (c) 48246 (d) 49145 (e) none of these
7 If in a certain language CHARCOAL is coded as 45164913 & MORALE is
coded as 296137 , how is COLLER coded in that language
(a) 397749 (b) 497758 (c) 483359 (d) 493376 (e) none of these
8 If in a certain language CHARCOAL is coded as 45164913 & MORALE i
s coded as 296137 , how is MECHRALE coded in that language
(a) 95378165 (b) 25378195 (c) 27456137 (d) 27386195 (e) none of these
9 If MISTAKE is coded as 9765412 & Naked is coded as 84123 , then what
will be the code for DISTANT ?
(a) 3765485 (b) 4798165 (c) 3697185
(d) 4768296 (e) none of these
10 If MISTAKE is coded as 9765412 & Naked is coded as 84123 , then wha
t will be the code for NEMISES ?
(a) 7598656 (b) 8597656 (c) 8297626 (d) 435985 (e) none of these
11 If ROPE is coded as 6821 & CHAIR is coded as 73456, then what will
be the code for CRAPE?
(a) 73456 (b) 76421 (c) 77246
(d) 77123 (e) None of these
12 In a certain code, 15789 is written as EGKPT and 2346 is written as ALU
R. How is 23549 written in that code ?
(a) ALEUT (b) ALGTU (c) ALGUT
(d) ALGRT (e) None of these
13 In a certain code, a number 13479 is written as AQFJL and 5268 is writ
ten as DMPN. How is 396824 written in that code?
(a) QLPNKJ (b) QLPNMF (c) QLPMNF
(d) QLPNDF (e) None of these
In a certain language 36492 is written as SMILE and 058 is written as RUN,
How are the following figures coded in that language ?
Q:14 33980
(a) SSLNR (b) SSLRN (c) SLSNR
(d) SLNRS (e) None of these
15 6458
(a) MUIN (b) MINU (c) INUM
(d) MIUN (e) IUMN
16 92486
(a) LEIMN (b) ELINR (c) LEINM
(d) EILNM (e) LIENM
17 54324
(a) SIUEI (b) UISEI (c) USIIE
(d) UISIE (e) SUEII
18 90089
(a) NLLRN (b) LRLNN (c) LLRRN
(d) LRRNL (e) RLLNN
19 3425
(a) SEIU (b) SIUE (c) SRUI

(d) RUSI (e) SIEU
20 29463
(a) ELISM (b) ELIMS (c) LIMSE
(d) EILMS (e) None of these
21 If in a certain language PRIVATE is coded as 1234567 & RISK is coded
as 2398, How is RIVETS coded in that language?
(a) 687543 (b) 234769 (c) 496321
(d) 246598 (e) None of these.
22 If PLAY is coded as 8123 &RHYME is coded as 49367, How is MALE c
oded as ?
(a) 6217 (b) 6198 (c) 6395
(d) 6285 (e) None of these
23 In a certain code language 24685 is written as 33776. How is 35791 writt
en in that code.
(a) 44882 (b) 44880 (c) 46682
(d) 44682 (e) None of these.
24 In a certain code language 35796 is written as 44887. How is 35791 writt
en in that code
(a) 57914 (b) 55914 (c) 5934
(d) 5714 (e) None of these.
25 If MINJUR is coded as 312547 & TADA as 6898, How can MADURAI b
e coded as?
(a) 3498178 (b) 3894871 (c) 384971
(d) 3894781 (e) None of these.
ANSWER SHEET
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
a c b a c d d c a c b c b a d
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25
c b d e b b a a b d
Answers With Explantion :-
1. The alphabets are coded as shown i. e. P as 3, I as 1, L as 8, E as 2, & R
as 6. So, PILLER is coded as 318826.
2. The alphabets are coded as shown i. e. G as 5, A as 2, T as 4 & E as 7.
So GATE is coded as 5247.
3. The alphabets are coded as shown i. e. p AS 2, E as 4, A as 1, R as 5, &
L as 3. So PEARL is coded as 24153.
4. S is coded as 9, E as 1, D as 8, A as 7 & T as 3. So SEDATE is coded as
918731.
5. E is coded as 1, N as 2, D as 8, A as 7 & R as 4. So ENDEAR is coded a
s 128174.
6. C is coded as 4, O as 9, A as 1 & H as 5.
7. C is code as 4, O as 9, L as 3, E as 7, & R as 6. So, COLLER is coded as

493376.
8. M is coded as 2, E as 7, C as 4, H as 5, R as 6, A as 1 & L as 3. So,
MECHRALE is coded as 27456137.
9. D is coded as 3, I as 7, S as 6, T as 5, A as 4, & N as 8. So the DISTANT
is coded as 3765485.
10. N is coded as 8, E as 2, M as 9, I as 7 & S as 6. So NEMISES is coded
as 8297626.
11. C is coded as 7, R as 6, A as 4, P as 2, & E as 1. So CRAPE is coded as
76421.
12. 2 is coded as A, 3 as L, 5 as G, 4 as U & 9 as T. So 23549 is coded as
ALGUT.
13. 3 is coded as Q, 9 as L, 6 as P, 8 as N, 2 as M & 4 as F. So 396824 is
coded as QLPNMF.
14. 3 is coded as S, 9 as L, 8 as N & 0 as R. So 33980 is coded as SSLNR.
15. 6 is coded as M, 4 as 1, 5 as U & 8 as N. So 6458 is coded as MIUN.
16. 9 is coded as L, 2 as E, 4 as I, 8 as N, & 6 as M. So, 92486 is coded as
LEINM.
17. 5 is coded U, 4 as I, 3 as S & 2 as E. So 54324 is coded as UISEI.
18. 9 is coded as L, 0 as R & 8 as N. So, 90089 is coded as LRRNL.
19. 3 is coded as S, 4 as I, 2 as E & 5 as U. So 3425 is coded as SIEU.
20. 2 is coded as E, 9 as L, 4 as I, 6 as M & 3 as S. So, 29463 is coded as
ELIMS.
21. R is coded as 2, I as 3, V as 4, E as 7, T as 6 & S as 9. So, RIVETS is c
oded as 234769.
22. Here M is coded as 6 , A is coded as 2 , L is coded as 1 , E is coded as 7
, therefore male is coded as 6217
23. In the code the letters at odd places are one place ahead & those at even
places are one place before the corresponding letter in the word. So in 3579
1, 3is written as 4, 5 as 4,7 as 8, 9 as 8 & 1 as 0. The code becomes 44880.
24. 4 will be written as 5, 5 as 6, 8 as 9, 2 as 1, 3 as 4. So the code is 5914.
25. Code is M as 3, A as 8, D as 9, U as 4, R as, 7 & I as 1. So, MADHRI i
s coded as 3894781.

BANK PO GENERAL INTELLIGENCE ABILITY SOLVED PAPER
1.If GRAMMAR is written as MAMRAGR, the ENGLISH is written as:

(a) LIGNSEH
(b) GINESHL
(c) LGINSEH
(d) NHSELGI
(e) None of these
Ans (c)
2. Which of the following replaces the question mark?
MILD : NKOH :: GATE?
(a) HCWI
(b) HDVQ
(c) IBUP
(d) HDUR
(e) None of these
Ans (a)
3. If DBMDVUUB stands for Calcutta, How will you write Bombay?
(a) DQUDDXB
(b) CPMCBZ
(c) DPNCB
(d) CPNCBZ
(e) None of these
Ans (d

4.Insert the word that completes the first word and begins the second Clue: boy BAL(….)DER
(a) ERS
(b) OCK
(c) LAD
(d) LIES
(e) None of these
Ans (c)
5. A man travels three miles due North, then travels eight miles due East and further travels three miles due North. How far is he from the starting point?
(a) 14 miles
(b) 10 miles
(c) 100 miles
(d) 15 miles
(e) None of these
Ans (b)
6. Which is the wrong member among the following?
(a) Microscope
(b) Stethoscope
(c) Telescope

(d) Periscope
(e) None of these
Ans (b)
7. From the following select the member that does not belong to the set
(a) Whale
(b) Crocodile
(c) Lizard
(d) Snake
(e) None of these
Ans (a)
8. Which is not related in the following set?
(a) Othello
(b) King Lear
(c) Macbeth
(d) Oliver TwistV
(e) None of these
Ans (d)
9. Which is the wrong member in the following set?
(a) Graphite
(b) Diamond
(c) Pearl

(d) Coal
(e) None of these
Ans (c)
10. From the following select the word that does not belong to the set
(a) Cube
(b) Rectangle
(c) Rhombus
(d) Square
(e) None of these
Ans (a)
11. If in a certain code TWENTY is written as 863985 and ELEVEN is wr
itten as 323039 how is TWELVE written?
(a) 863584
(b) 863203
(c) 863903
(d) 863063
(e) None of these
Ans (b)
12. Showing a man Saroj said: “He is the brother of my Uncle’s daughter”. W
hat is the relation of Saroj with that man?
(a) Son
(b) Brother-in-law

(c) Nephew
(d) Cousin
(e) None of these
Ans (d)
13.In a certain code MONKEY is written as XDJMNL. How is TIGER writte
n in that code?
(a) SDFHS
(b) SHFDQ
(c) QDFHS
(d) UJHFS
(e) None of these
Ans (c)
14.Choose the subject which is different from others
(a) Mathematics
(b) Arithmetic
(c) Geometry
(d) Algebra
(e) None of these
Ans (a)
15. Aluminium is to Bauxite as iron is to
(a) Pyrite

(b) Haematite
(c) Magnesite
(d) Iron Oxide
(e) None of these
Ans (b)
16. Which among the following is different from others?
(a) DE
(b) PQ
(c) TU
(d) MO
(e) None of these
Ans (d)
17. Which is the odd pair of words different from the following sets?
(a) Blacksmith : Anvil
(b) Carpenter : Saw
(c) Goldsmith : Ornaments
(d) Barber : Scissor
(e) None of these
Ans (c)
18. Which is the pair like Triangle : Hexagon?
(a) Cone : Sphere

(b) Rectangle : Octagon
(c) Pentagon : Heptagon
(d) Triangle : Quadrilateral
(e) None of these
Ans (c)
19. Bag is related to luggage in the same way as ship is related to
(a) Cargo
(b) Coal
(c) Stock
(d) Weight
(e) None of these
Ans (a)
20. Moon : Satellite :: Earth : ?
(a) sun
(b) solar system
(c) asteroid
(d) planet
(e) None of these
Ans (d)
21. Select the pair which has the same relationship as the given pair Traveler: Destination
(a) Beggar : Donation

(b) Teacher : Education
(c) Refugee : Shelter
(d) Accident : Hospital
(e) None of these
Ans (c)
22. A man is facing north-west. He turns 90o in the clockwise direction and then 1350 in the anticlockwise direction. Which direction is he facing now?
(a) east
(b) west
(c) north
(d) south
(e) None of these
Ans (b)
23. Which is the irregular member of the following group?
(a) RQPA
(b) MLKA
(c) STUA
(d) HGFA
(e) None of these
Ans (c)
24.Choose which is least like the other words in the group?

(a) Club
(b) hotel
(c) hostel
(d) inn
(e) None of these
Ans (a)
25. Which among the following is same as Violet : Orange : Yellow?
(a) Purple
(b) White
(c) Pink
(d) Blue
(e) None of these
Ans (d)
SBI CLERK REASONING ABILITY SOLVED PAPER
1.(i) ‘P× Q’ means ‘Q’ is mother of ‘P’.
(ii) ‘P × Q’ means ‘P’ is brother of ‘Q’.
(iii) ‘P – Q’ means ‘P’ is sister of ‘Q’.
(iv) ‘P ÷ Q’ means ‘Q is father of ‘P’.
Which of the following definitely means R is grandson of K?
(a) R × T ÷ K
(b) M + R × T ÷ K
(c) M – R × T ÷ K
(d) Cannot be determined
(e) None of these.
Ans (e)
2. How many such pairs of digits are there in the number 95137248 each of which has as many digits between them in the number as when they are arranged in ascending order?
(a) None
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Three
(e) More than three.
Ans (b)
3. In a certain code PATHOLOGIST is written as PIUBQKSRHFN. How is CONTROVERSY written in that code?
(a) SUOPDNXRQDU
(b) SUOPDNZTSFW
(c) QSMNBPXRQDU
(D) QSMNBPZTSFW
(e) None of these.
Ans (a)
4. In a certain code PATHOLOGIST is written as PIUBQKSRHFN. How is CONTROVERSY written in that code?
(a) SUOPDNXRQDU
(b) SUOPDNZTSFW
(c) QSMNBPXRQDU
(D) QSMNBPZTSFW
(e) None of these.
Ans (a)
5. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group.
Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(a) Food : Hunger
(b) Water : Thirst
(c) Air : Suffocation
(d) Talent : Education
(e) Leg : Lame
Ans (d)
6. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group.
Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(a) Crow
(b) Vulture

(c) Bat
(d) Ostrich
(e) Eagle
Ans (c)
7. Which of the following has the same relationship as that of Money : weal
th?
(a) Pity : Kindness
(b) Cruel : Anger
(c) Wise : Education
(d) Pride : Humility
(e) None of these.
Ans (a)
8. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(a) 29
(b) 85
(c) 147
(d) 125
(e) 53
Ans (d)
9. If it is possible to make a meaningful word with the second, the sixth and the ninth letters of the word PERMEABILITY, which of the following willbe the first letter of that word? If no such word can be formed give ‘N’ asthe answer. If only two such words can be formed give ‘D’ as the answer and if more than two such words can be formed give ‘Z’ as the answer.
(a) M
(b) L
(c) N
(d) D
(e) Z
Ans (e)
10. In a certain code language BEAM is written as 5%*K and COME is written as $7K%. How is ‘BOMB’ written in that code?
(a) 5%K5
(b) 57K5
(c) $7K$
(d) 5$%5
(e) None of these
Ans (b)
11. Find the number of days from 26-1-1996 to 15-5-1996 (both days inclus
ive)
(a) 110

(b) 112
(c) 111
(d) 113
(e) None of these
Ans (a)
12. Find the wrong number in the following sequence: 22, 33, 66, 99, 121, 2
79, 594
(a) 279
(b) 594
(c) 121
(d) 33
(e) None of these
Ans (a)
13. A father is now three times as old as his son. Five years back he was four times as old as his son. What is the age of the son now?
(a) 12
(b) 15
(c) 18
(d) 20
(e) None of these
Ans (a)
14. How many times between 4 a.m and 4 p.m will the hands of a clock cros
s?
(a) 4
(b) 8
(c) 10
(d) 11
(e) None of these
Ans (d)
15. Five students are sitting in row. T is on right of Z. M is on the left of Z but is on the right of L. T is on the left of Q. Who is sitting first from the l eft? Here students are represented by the letters T, Z, M, L and Q
(a) Z
(b) T
(c) Q
(d) L
(e) None of these
Ans (d)
16. ANGER : 37219 : : NEAR:
(a) 7219
(b) 9132
(c) 1372

(d) 7139
(e) None of these
Ans (d)
17. What is the letter immediately to the right of the letter which is seven letters to the right of ‘W’, considering all the letters of the alphabet written in reverse order from left to right starting from ‘Z’
(a) R
(b) O
(c) M
(d) Q
(e) None of these
Ans (b)
18. If the first day of the year 1990 was a Monday, what day of the week wa
s the 1st January 1998?
(a) Thursday
(b) Tuesday
(c) Wednesday
(d) Friday
(e) None of these
Ans (a)
19. If “good and bad” is coded as 123, “bad is ugly” is coded as 245 and “goo
d is fair” is coded as 436, then what is the code for “fair”?
(a) 1
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 5
(e) None of these
Ans (c)
20. Choose the one from the following which is different from others
(a) pen and pencil
(b) tailer and shirt
(c) scooter and cycle
(d) sword and riffle
(e) None of these
Ans (b)
21. If 2 = 1, 3 = 3, 4 = 12, 5 = 60 then 6 = …..?
(a) 120
(b) 180
(c) 720
(d) 360
(e) None of these
Ans (d)

22. What is the next letter of the series, F, I, L, O, …..?
(a) M
(b) N
(c) R
(d) P
(e) None of these
Ans (c)
23. How many ’5′ s are there which are followed by 0 and preceded by 0 in t he following series 157050700512515050050
(a) 1
(b) 5
(c) 4
(d) 3
(e) None of these
Ans (d)
24. A boy goes to see a movie and sees a man sitting to his left. He found that the man was his relative. The man is the husband of the sister of his mo ther. How is the man related to the boy?
(a) Uncle
(b) Nephew
(c) Brother
(d) Father
(e) None of these
Ans (a)
25. A person traveled 20 km in the northward direction, then traveled 4 km in eastward direction, then traveled 10 km in the northward direction again, then traveled 3 km in the eastward direction and finally traveled 6 km in th e southward direction. How far is he from the starting point?
(a) 17 km
(b) 37 km
(c) 31 km
(d) 25 km
(e) None of these
Ans (d)

SBI CLERK REASONING ABILITY
1.Study each of the following table and choose the alternative which can best replace the question mark (?)
1 2 3 2 10 12
2 5 12 10 16 13
1 2 1 ? 10 24
(a) 5 (b) 11 (c) 13 (d) 8
Ans (c)
2. Study each of the following table and choose the alternative which can be
st replace the question mark (?)
3 8 10 2 ? 1
6 56 90 2 20 0
(a) 0 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 7
Ans (c)
3.In the following question one term in the number series is wrong. Find ou
t the wrong term.
11, 5, 20, 12, 40, 26, 74, 54
(a) 5 (b) 20 (c) 40 (d) 26
Ans (c)
4. In the following question one term in the number series is wrong. Find ou
t the wrong term.
8, 14, 26, 48, 98, 194, 386
(a) 14 (b) 48 (c) 98 (d) 194
Ans (b)
5. Calculate value of each word by the following formula:
Consonants = (2 × Position of the letter in alphabet) – 1
Vowels = (3 × Position in alphabet) + 1
CHANGE
(a) 77 (b) 79 (c) 83 (d) 80
Ans (d)
6. Calculate value of each word by the following formula:
Consonants = (2 × Position of the letter in alphabet) – 1
Vowels = (3 × Position in alphabet) + 1
FLUTE
(a) 153 (b) 157 (c) 151 (d) 149
Ans (a)
7. Calculate value of each word by the following formula:
Consonants = (2 × Position of the letter in alphabet) – 1
Vowels = (3 × Position in alphabet) + 1
BREAD
(a) 67 (b) 62 (c) 59 (d) 65

Ans (d)
8. In a certain code language, ’3a, 2b, 7c’ means ‘Truth is Eternal’; ’7c, 9a,
8b, 3a’ means ‘Enmity is not Eternal’ and 6a, 4d, 2b, 8b’ means ‘Truth does n
ot perish’. Which of the following means ‘enmity’ in that language?
(a) 3a (b) 7c (c) 8b (d) 9a
Ans (d)
9. In a certain code language, ‘po ki top ma’ means ‘Usha is playing cards’;
‘Kop ja ki ma’ means ‘Asha is playing tennis’; ki top sop ho’ means ‘they are
playing football’; and ‘po sur kop’ means ‘cards and tennis’. Which word in
that language means ‘Asha’?
(a) ja (b) ma (c) kop (d) top
Ans (a)
10. A girl was born on September 6, 1970, which happened to be a Sunday.
Her birthday has again fall on Sunday in
(a) 1975 (b) 1976 (c) 1977 (d) 1981
Ans (d)
11. A long rope has to be cut to make 23 small pieces. If it is double folded
to start with how many times does it need to be cut?
(a) 9 (b) 23 (c) 11 (d) 12
Ans (c)
12. There are 19 hockey players in a club. On a particular day 14 were we
aring the hockey shirts prescribed, while 11 were wearing the prescribed
hockey pants. None of them was without either hockey pants or hockey shir
ts. How many were in complete hockey uniform?
(a) 8 (b) 6 (c) 9 (d) 7
Ans (b)
13. In a class room three fourth of the boys are above 160 cm in height and th
ey are 18 in number. Also out of the total strength, the boys form only two th
ird and the rest are girls. The total number of girls in the class is
(a) 18 (b) 24 (c) 12 (d) 30
Ans (c)
14. ‘A’ is east of ‘B’ and west of ‘C’. ‘H’ is South-West of ‘C’, ‘B’ is South-Ea
st of ‘X’. which is farthest West?
(a) C (b) A (c) X (d) B
Ans (c)
15. A girl earns twice as much in December as in each of the other months.
What part of her entire year’s earning does she earn in December?
(a) 2/11 (b) 2/13 (c) 3/14 (d) 1/6
Ans (b)
16. One watch is 1 minute slow at 1 pm on Tuesday and 2 minutes fast at 1 pm on Thursday. When did it show the correct time?

(a) 1.00 am on Wednesday (b) 5.00 am on Wednesday (c) 1.00 pm on Wed nesday (d) 5.00 pm on Wednesday Directions (Question 17 to 22) :Given a statement followed by two assumpti ons numbered I and II. You have to consider the statement and the followin g assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the state ment.
Mark (a) if only assumption I is implicit
Mark (b) if only assumption II is implicit
Mark (c) if either I or II is implicit
Mark (d) if neither I or II is implicit
17.Statement: Even with the increase in the number of sugar factories in Indi
a. We still continue to import sugar.
Assumptions :I. The consumption of sugar per capita has increased in India.
II. Many of the factories are not in a position to produce sugar to their fulles
t capacity.
Ans (c)
18.Statement :I cannot contact you on phone from Karshik.
Assumption : I. Telephone facility is not available at Karshik.
II. Nowadays it is difficult to contact on phone.
Ans (b)
19.Statement : The government has decided to reduce the custom duty on co
mputer peripherals.
Assumptions : I. The domestic market price of computer peripherals may go
up in near future.
II. the domestic manufacturers may oppose the decision.
Ans (a)
20. Statement : In Bombay, railway trains are indispensable for people in th e suburbs to reach their places of work on time. Assumptions : I. Railway trains are the only mode of transport available in the suburbs of Bombay.
II. Only railway trains run punctually.
Ans (a)
21. Statement :The private bus services in the city has virtually collapsed b
ecause of the ongoing strike of its employees.
Assumptions : I. Going on strikes has become the right of every employee.
II. People no more require the services of private bus operators.
Ans (b)
22. Statement : Detergents should be used. to clean clothes.
Assumptions : I. Detergents from more lather.
II. Detergents help to dislodge grease and dirt.
Ans (d)
23. Which letter when placed at the sign of interrogation shall complete the
matrix?
A D H
F I M
? N R
(a) P (b) N (c) K (c) O
Ans (c)
24. Which letter when placed at the sign of interrogation shall complete the
matrix?
A M B N
R C S D
E U F ?
(a) T (b) F (c) V (d) R
Ans (c)
25. Which number when placed at the sign of interrogation shall complete t
he matrix?
1 4 9 ?
1 2 3 4
2 4 6 ?
(a) 16 and 8 (b) 36 and 4 (c) 25 and 5 (d) 49 and 7
Ans (a)
26. Which number when placed at the sign of interrogation shall complete t
he matrix?
6 6 8
5 7 5
4 3 ?
120 126 320
(a) 12 (b) 16 (c) 8 (d) 4
Ans (c)
27. In the following questions, there are given two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two given stateme nts to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known fac ts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from t wo given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Read both the stat ements and give answer as:
(a) If only conclusion I follows. (b) If only conclusion II follows.
(c) If either I or II follows. (d) If neither I nor II follows.
Statements: I. Many scooters are trucks. II. All trucks are trains
Conclusions: I. Some scooters are trains. II. No truck is a scooter.
Ans (a)
28. In the following questions, there are given two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two given stateme nts to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from t wo given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Read both the stat ements and give answer as:
(a) If only conclusion I follows. (b) If only conclusion II follows.
(c) If either I or II follows. (d) If neither I nor II follows.
Statements: I. All cars are cats. II. All fans are cats.
Conclusions: I. All cars are fans. II. Some fans are cars.
Ans (d)
29. In the following questions, there are given two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two given stateme nts to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known fac ts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from t wo given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Read both the stat ements and give answer as:
(a) If only conclusion I follows. (b) If only conclusion II follows.
(c) If either I or II follows. (d) If neither I nor II follows.
Statements: I. All pilots are experts. II. All authors are pilots.
Conclusions: I. All authors are experts. II. No expert in an author.
Ans (a)

30.In the following questions, there are given two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two given statemen ts to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known fact s and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from tw o given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Read both the state ments and give answer as:
(a) If only conclusion I follows. (b) If only conclusion II follows.
(c) If either I or II follows. (d) If neither I nor II follows.
Statements: I. Some doctors are institutes. II. Some crooks are institutes.
Conclusions: I. All institutes are doctors. II. Some institutes are crooks.
Ans (b)
1.Accident is related to Carefulness in the same way as Disease is related to
(a) Sanitation
(b) Treatment
(c) Medicine
(d) Doctor
Ans (a) Lack of second results in the first
2. Aflatoxin is related to Food poisoning in the same way as Histamine is rel
ated to
(a) Allergy
(b) Headache
(c) Anthrax
(d) Inhabited Ans (a) First causes the second
3. Ostrich is related to Antelope in the same way as Egret is related to
(a) Cow
(b) Buffalo
(c) Camel
(d) Zebra
Ans (b) Both live together to derive benefits from each other
4. Hong Kong is related to China in the same way as Vatican is related to..?…
(a) Canada
(b) Mexico
(c) North America
(d) Rome
Ans (d) Hong Kong is a city in china. Similarly, Vatican is a city in Rome
5. Forfeit related to Surrender in the same way as Remit is related to
(a) Perceive
(b) Confiscate
(c) Exempt
(d) Refrain
Ans (d) The words in each pair are synonyms
Directions (questins 6 to 10): Each of the questions below consists of a qu
estion and two statements marked I and II given below it. You have to decid
e whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the
question. Read both the statements and give answer
(a) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, whi
le the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(b) If the data in statements I alone are not sufficient to answer the question
, while the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(c) If the data either in statement I or in statement II alone are sufficient to
answer the question.
(d) If the data even in both the statements I and II together are not sufficien
t to answer the question.
(e) If the data in both statements I and II together are needed to answer the question.
6. What does ‘Ne’ stands for in the code language?
I. ‘Na Ni Nok Ne’ means ‘I will tell you’ and ‘Ni Nok Ne Nam’ means ‘he will
tell you’ in that code language.
II. ‘Ni Ne Mo Nam’ means ‘will he call you’ and ‘Ne Mok Sac Ni’ means ‘how
will you go’ in that code language.
Ans (d)
7. Who amongst P, Q, R, S, T and U is the tallest?
I. P is taller that R and T but not as tall as U, who is taller than Q and S.
II. R is the third in height in the ascending order and not as tall as U, P and Q
, Q being taller than P but not the tallest.
Ans (c)
8. Who among A, B, C, D, E & F read the book last?
I. F, who gave the book to B after reading, was third to read the same.
II. C, who read the book after A, was the third person to read the book befor
e it reached E.
Ans (d)
9. Who is paternal uncle of Pavan?
I. Pavan is brother of Poornima, who is daughter of Meena, who is sister of Kumar, who is brother Smrithi.
II. Prithvi is brother of Indrajith, who is husband of Poornima, who is mothe
r of Ganga, who is sister of Pavan.
Ans (b) 1
What is Milan’s rank in the class of 44 students?
I. Ramesh, whose rank is 17th in the class, is ahead of Shyam by 6 ranks, Shyam being 7 ranks ahead of Milan. II. Suketu is 26 ranks ahead of Milan and Shyamala is 6 ranks behind Milan while Savita stands exactly in the middle of Shyamala and Suketu in ranks , her rank being 17. Ans (c) Directions (questions 11 to 15): Read the fol lowing information and answer the questions given below.
(i) A, B, C, D, E, F and G are seven members standing in a row (not necessarily in the same order) facing north.
(ii) C and B have as many members between them as G and C have between them.
(iii) D, who is 3rd from the extreme left, is 3rd to the left of E.
(iv) A and D are neighbors and F and C are neighbors.
11. Which of the following statements may be false?
(a) A is the 3rd to the left of F
(b) D is 3rd to the left of E
(c) F is 3rd the right of A
(d) B is 3rd to the left of C
(e) None of these

Ans (d)
12. Which of the following statements is true?
(a) C and E are neighbors
(b) E is to the immediate left of F
(c) C is to the immediate left of D
(d) A is to the immediate left of D
(e) None of these
Ans (d)
13. Who is at the extreme right?
(a) Data inadequate
(b) G
(c) B
(d) E
(e) None of these
Ans (a)
14. Which of the following given two pairs of neighbors?
(a) A, C and D, C
(b) A, B and E, G
(c) D, C and E, F
(d) C, F and C, E
(e) None of these
Ans (c)
15. What is the position of F?
(a) Immediate to the right of E.
(b) Third to the left of G
(c) Immediate to the left of C
(d) 5th to the right of B
(e) None of these Ans (e)
16. Four of the following five groups of letters are alike in some way while o ne is different. Find out which one is different.
(a) ISLOJ
(b) LUOQM
(c) AKDGB
(d) FPILG
(e) NXQTO
Ans (b)
17. In the sequence given below the sum of the two digits which immediately precede the digit ’4′ exceeds the sum of the two digits which immediately follow the digit 4 and sum of the two digits which immediately follow the d igit 6 exceeds the sum of the two digits which immediately precede the digi t 6. How many such 4′s and 6′s together are there?
5 4 4 6 2 6 3 5 6 4 2 8 4 3 7 6 6 4 8 3
(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 3
(d) 5
(e) None of these
Ans (a)
18. Below are given six three-digit numbers. The digits comprise of numeric and letters. The letter indicates its serial order in the English alphabet. What will be the middle digit of the 4th number when the numbers are arrange d in the descending order after interchanging numeric in each number without altering the place of letter in the number?
19F, 2H9, 98B, D76, 7A6, 61E
(a) 8
(b) 9
(c) 6
(d) 7
(e) None of these
Ans (e)
Directions (questions19 to 20): In a code language any letter which is immed iately after or before a vowel in the English alphabet is substituted by tha t vowel and any vowel i.e. A, E, I, O and U is substituted by the letter imm ediately following that vowel in the English alphabet.
19. How can the word FEVERISH be written in that code language?
(a) EDVDRJSI
(b) EFUFRHSI
(c) EFUFRJSI
(d) EDUFRJSI
(e) None of these
Ans (c)
20. How can the word CONFEDERATION be written in that code language ?
(a) CPOGFEDRBUTPO
(b) CPOEFEFRBUJPO
(c) CNOEFEFRBUHNO
(d) CONFFDERATION
(e) None of these
Ans (b)
21. If each of the vowels i.e. A, E, I, O, & U along with the 3rd letter to it s right in the alphabet are taken out and arranged one after the other in the same order followed by the remaining letters of the alphabet, which of the fol lowing will be 5th to the left of the 19th letter from the left in the new arr angement?
A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
(a) G
(b) H
(c) J
(d) W
(e) none of these
Ans (a)
22. How many pairs of letters are there in the word SPONTANEOUS which ha ve number of letters between them in the word one less than the number o f letters between them in English alphabet?
(a) five
(b) one
(c) four
(d) Two
(e) Three
Ans (a)
23. Four of the following five have similar relationship and hence form a group. Which one does not belong to the group?
(a) BROTHER : DORVEHT
(b) ENGLISH : GGNNSIJ
(c) ANOTHER : CONVEHT
(d) BETWEEN : DTEZEEP
(e) HUSBAND : JSUDNAF
Ans (d)
24. Which pair of the letters in the word BEAUTIFUL has the same relationship between its letters with respect to their position in the English alphabet as the pair EA in that word has between its letters?
(a) IB
(b) LF
(c) IE
(d) FL
(e) TL
Ans (c)
25. Which of the following relates to FLOWER in the same way as RTER BN relates to SECTOR?
(a) RWLGPF
(b) EOFKUQ
(c) EOFMXS
(d) RWLEPD
(e) RWLEND
Ans (e) CLICK HERE FOR MORE RESULTS JOB

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